Phylogenomic Fallacies

Posted 16 December 2014 by

This is the fourth in a series of articles for the general public focused on understanding how species are related and how genomic data is used in research. Today, we talk about some common fallacies in phylogenomics. Where do humans fit on the evolutionary tree of life? This is an important topic in evolutionary biology. A lot of people believe humans are the most important and highly-evolved organisms, but in reality, all modern species are equally evolved. Our natural tendency to assume that humans are evolutionarily superior has led to a few misconceptions about phylogenetic trees. plants.png To understand the first misconception, let's look at a phylogenetic tree of plants (from "The Amborella Genome and the Evolution of Flowering Plants"). Eudicots and monocots are two classes of flowering plants, or angiosperms, and the plants in black are non-flowering plants. The term "basal" refers to the base of a phylogenetic tree, and a basal group is a species that branches closer to that base. The authors chose to label the angiosperms that are not eudicots or monocots as "basal angiosperms." But this label is arbitrary; all the angiosperms are equidistant from the common ancestor and thus equally evolved. We sometimes tend to give more weight to branches that contain the species of interest and call other branches basal, almost assigning them a lesser importance. In this case, the species of interest is plants that consist of many foods that humans eat; a species is often deemed more important as it relates to humans. But modern species are equally evolved from a root common ancestor regardless of when their branch diverged from the common ancestor. To avoid confusion, it might be best to eliminate the "basal" term altogether. This type of thinking also leads us to place humans at the end of phylogenetic trees. However, this placement is arbitrary and trees can be drawn in many equivalent ways. For example, compare a tree of primates with the branches rotated. The tree on the left, with humans at the top of the tree, is one you might see more often. But both of these trees are actually identical, and the relationships between species that can be inferred from the tree on the right is the same as the relationships in the tree on the left. Species at the tip of a tree are equidistant from the root common ancestor, so they can be considered evolutionarily equivalent. primate tree 1.png primate tree 2.png Similarly, a common misconception is that humans evolved directly from monkeys. Monkeys, though, are modern species just like we are and have been evolving and changing over time. The common ancestor we share with monkeys may have looked much different than monkeys do now. This assumption that modern species represent an ancestral state of human evolution is what T. Ryan Gregory calls the platypus fallacy. Gregory uses the example that we can't examine the traits of platypuses and think that humans at one point in their evolution possessed these same traits. We can no more infer the traits of human ancestor species from platypuses than platypuses can infer the traits of their ancestors from us. Human-centered thinking is very prevalent in our society, affecting our laws, religions, and customs. While it probably influences all of us on a personal level, it can lead to false conclusions and misconceptions in science, like thinking that humans are the most highly evolved species. But all modern species are evolutionarily equivalent because they have been evolving for the same amount of time. Eliminating this fallacy will enable us to better understand the evolutionary process. For more information on basal groups, check out: "Which side of the tree is more basal?, Krell, Frank et al. Systematic Entomology (2004). This series is supported by NSF Grant #DBI-1356548 to RA Cartwright.

136 Comments

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 16 December 2014

Well, of course humans evolved directly from monkeys. Humans are monkeys. I know the fallacy you're attacking here, but that isn't it. I'm not complaining about the principle, in other words, just the specific example you choose. In fact, the common ancestor of humans, guenons, and tamarins would presumably have possessed whatever characteristics are shared between guenons and tamarins. We can't pick out one species and say that it's like the ancestor, but we can examine how traits are shared over the tree. The problem here is that "monkey" as commonly used refers to a paraphyletic group in which humans are embedded.

DS · 16 December 2014

Excellent post. This misconception goes all the way back to Aristotle and the Scala Naturae. Humans just naturally think in hierarchies. However, this can be a very misleading concept in phylogenetics. And creationists aren't the only ones who get this wrong. Showing the two trees side by side is an excellent way to get the point across. As for the term basal, it does have a specific meaning, even if it is often used incorrectly or interpreted incorrectly. At least the terms basal and derived carry less negative connotations that the terms primitive and advanced.

Creationists usually claim that humans evolved from chimps. This is of course incorrect, as can clearly be seen in either version of the tree. However, to claim that humans evolved from monkeys might be correct, depending on your definition of that term, as correctly pointed out by the previous poster. Perhaps it would just be best to say that humans evolved from other primates.

Palaeonictis · 16 December 2014

DS said: Excellent post. This misconception goes all the way back to Aristotle and the Scala Naturae. Humans just naturally think in hierarchies. However, this can be a very misleading concept in phylogenetics. And creationists aren't the only ones who get this wrong. Showing the two trees side by side is an excellent way to get the point across. As for the term basal, it does have a specific meaning, even if it is often used incorrectly or interpreted incorrectly. At least the terms basal and derived carry less negative connotations that the terms primitive and advanced. Creationists usually claim that humans evolved from chimps. This is of course incorrect, as can clearly be seen in either version of the tree. However, to claim that humans evolved from monkeys might be correct, depending on your definition of that term, as correctly pointed out by the previous poster. Perhaps it would just be best to say that humans evolved from other primates.
Another misconception is that humans evolved from apes, which isn't the case. Humans are apes! Our closest *living* relatives are the chimpanzees, now our closest relative overall would be Homo sapiens idaltu

harold · 16 December 2014

The entire biosphere is all the product of billions of years of evolution since the origin of cellular life, so the term "more evolved" is meaningless.

In fairness, some anatomic, physiologic, or molecular features are more recent that others. Cell membranes and the citric acid cycle are extremely ancient features of life, for example, whereas internal skeletons in animals is a much more recent feature.

Humans do have some unique recent features, such as our particular bipedal gait (bipedalism itself is fairly ancient but not our type), or particular brain structure, our speech (recent evidence shows that bird speech, which is far more ancient than human speech, may be surprisingly related, but our speech evolved independently from theirs). It's mildly interesting that birds have a form of speech, bipedalism, and specialized forelimbs, just like us.

So humans are clearly not "more evolved" than anything else in the biosphere, but we do have many recent traits.

It's often conjectured that some types of organisms like amoebae have relatively fewer recent traits and have been more similar to distant past ancestors for longer. This is hard to confirm but may not be totally unreasonable.

eric · 16 December 2014

harold said: The entire biosphere is all the product of billions of years of evolution since the origin of cellular life, so the term "more evolved" is meaningless. In fairness, some anatomic, physiologic, or molecular features are more recent that others. Cell membranes and the citric acid cycle are extremely ancient features of life, for example, whereas internal skeletons in animals is a much more recent feature.
In principle, yes. In practice, there may be some lineages in which there are very few changes in functional genetic sequences over time (compared to others). Those lineages are interesting, from both a biological and historical point of view. They help us understand what life was like in the past, the sorts of ecologies that existed. And while the term "less evolved" may carry with it all sorts of derogatory and unscientific implied meanings, I think we do have a decent reason to give some label to such lineages, if for no other reason than we are often going to want to talk specifically about them and thus a word or phrase for them is useful. So, what do you (and I'm using the rhetorical 'you' here, to ask the entire biological community) suggest? What's a pithy descriptive term or phrase for such critters?

harold · 16 December 2014

eric said:
harold said: The entire biosphere is all the product of billions of years of evolution since the origin of cellular life, so the term "more evolved" is meaningless. In fairness, some anatomic, physiologic, or molecular features are more recent that others. Cell membranes and the citric acid cycle are extremely ancient features of life, for example, whereas internal skeletons in animals is a much more recent feature.
In principle, yes. In practice, there may be some lineages in which there are very few changes in functional genetic sequences over time (compared to others). Those lineages are interesting, from both a biological and historical point of view. They help us understand what life was like in the past, the sorts of ecologies that existed. And while the term "less evolved" may carry with it all sorts of derogatory and unscientific implied meanings, I think we do have a decent reason to give some label to such lineages, if for no other reason than we are often going to want to talk specifically about them and thus a word or phrase for them is useful. So, what do you (and I'm using the rhetorical 'you' here, to ask the entire biological community) suggest? What's a pithy descriptive term or phrase for such critters?
I think "recent" versus "ancient" is one approach. After all, things that are ancient and preserved are not exactly "less evolved". They are still found in the modern biosphere because they have been strongly selected for and mutations affecting them have been strongly selected against. Is a robust trait that will be in the biosphere for the indefinite future, less "evolved" than a recent novel trait that may have a short future on earth? But of course, some authorities do define "rate of evolution" as rate of change in a lineage over time, measured in some way. This is the basis of the "saltation versus gradualism" wrangles of the mid-twentieth century. By this standard, all the selection that keeps a highly adapted and morphologically stable lineage looking the same doesn't count as evolution, and any lineage that has a lot of recent features is more evolved than any lineage that has more ancient features. But rather than argue about that, we could just call recent things recent and ancient things ancient, and rate of morphologic or genetic change in a population over a given period of time, "rate of morphologic change in population over a given period of time". Instead of arguing over which traits are "more evolved" we could just note which arose more recently, which are more strongly selected for in which environments, and so on. Note that by any standard humans are not "more evolved" than the rest of the biosphere. Even if someone argues that the selection for the conserved traits of successful ancient morphologies "doesn't count" as evolution (I think it does but even if someone doesn't), there are plenty of lineages beside humans with highly novel recent traits.

https://me.yahoo.com/a/JxVN0eQFqtmgoY7wC1cZM44ET_iAanxHQmLgYgX_Zhn8#57cad · 16 December 2014

Yes, I was thinking that when you can recognize a coelacanth in a fish market when only fossil coelacanths were known, coelacanths are really a bit closer, at least in morphology, to ancestral lobe-finned fishes than is a gorilla. Mosses, liverworts, while certainly not unchanged in morphology, remain recognizable, while angiosperms have recognizably changed more. And adaptive radiations seem to be real--Cambrian and all of that.

Rates of evolution aren't all that clear. Is genetic change really a good way to date splits, or do some lineages accumulate change more slowly. But then there's the question of what kind of change is going on. Possibly coelacanths have changed genetically every bit as much as our lineage has, but if coelacanth changes involved largely neutral changes, is that what we mean by "evolved a lot"?

Then there are generational times that might affect evolutionary rates. Mice presumably could evolve much faster than humans, although in morphology our line seems to have changed more, at least recently. Do bacteria and archea that live and reproduce very slowly evolve as fast as, say, E. coli?

It does seem that evolutionary "speeds" are likely to differ, certainly by some measures, such as morphology. If this were not so, how would life bounce back after major extinctions?

Glen Davidson

https://me.yahoo.com/a/JxVN0eQFqtmgoY7wC1cZM44ET_iAanxHQmLgYgX_Zhn8#57cad · 16 December 2014

Of course, the "most evolved" genomes belong to viruses.

Glen Davidson

DS · 16 December 2014

Interesting that whole genome duplication events occurred in two of the most successful lineages, angiosperms (red star) and vertebrates (which had two).

eric · 16 December 2014

https://me.yahoo.com/a/JxVN0eQFqtmgoY7wC1cZM44ET_iAanxHQmLgYgX_Zhn8#57cad said: Rates of evolution aren't all that clear. Is genetic change really a good way to date splits, or do some lineages accumulate change more slowly.
Well, AIUI the nice thing is that we have a variety of different genetic 'clocks' we can look at - both because some mutations are biochemically more probable than others, and because some mutations are functionally less probable to propagate over generations than others. The variety of rate-of-change in different genetic regions helps us have confidence in an average or convergent date. When you aren't sure at what rate your clock runs, having lots of other clocks that run at different rates isn't a curse, its a blessing. :)
But then there's the question of what kind of change is going on. Possibly coelacanths have changed genetically every bit as much as our lineage has, but if coelacanth changes involved largely neutral changes, is that what we mean by "evolved a lot"?
That's why I didn't use the term 'allele.' My understanding is that 'allele' refers to a specific sequence regardless of what it does, so that even species that have not undergone any significant phenotypic change in millions of years are likely to have undergone changes in allele frequencies. I was trying to avoid the discussion of whether such changes are 'evolution,' and just point out that there are good academic and vernacular-communication reasons to give a term to the sorts of creatures that have remain relatively phenotypically unchanged over millions of years.

harold · 16 December 2014

It does seem that evolutionary “speeds” are likely to differ, certainly by some measures, such as morphology.
Cockroaches have survived many events that led to mass extinction of other lineages. That certainly means that they have a recognizably ancient morphology, but does it mean that they are "less evolved"? They evolved traits that were better adapted to surviving those events even before those events occurred. They were relatively selected for by those events. (I despise cockroaches as much as the next person, just making the point that they are a persistently successful lineage.) Presumably it means that some of their genetic sequences - the ones that are involved in morphologic development, for an obvious example - are similar to the genetic sequences of their relatively ancient ancestors. But again, should we define "more recent" or "more diverged from a common ancestor" features, whether morphologic or genetic, as "more evolved"? That favors mutation over selection as a criterion for being "evolved", but selection is just as much a part of evolution. If something works and is strongly selected for, for hundreds of millions of years, why call it "less evolved"? If we call more recent or more divergent morphology more evolved, we just end up calling recent hyper-adapted super-specialists in new environments "more evolved". If we call more recent or more divergent genetic change "more evolved" then, as you note, viruses are by the far the most evolved things on Earth. Again, for the third time in a very short thread, I recommend use of terminology like "ancient", "conserved", "recent", and "novel". It doesn't matter what I recommend, I'm a community hospital pathologist, but that is what I think most people are doing anyway.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 16 December 2014

DS said: Interesting that whole genome duplication events occurred in two of the most successful lineages, angiosperms (red star) and vertebrates (which had two).
How are you defining "most successful"? And anyway, whole genome duplications (=polyploidy) is probably more common in ferns than in angiosperms. How does that fit into your observation?

DS · 16 December 2014

Well other than insects, these are the two most diverse and dominant groups in the terrestrial environment. They have certainly been highly successful in terms of speciation and diversification. Ferns cannot have more common genome duplications, since all angiosperms and vertebrates posses them as a derived character. This is evolutionary polyploidy rather than regular polyploidy. It involves not just duplicate numbers of chromosomes but significant neofunctionalization and diploidization. Of course ferns are also successful in the sense that they still exist and continue to evolve. But they are certainly not as successful as angiosperms or vertebrates by most reasonable measures. My apologies to fern lovers everywhere.

The point is that gene duplication, sometimes through whole genome duplication, provides the raw material for mutation and selection, sometimes making entire lineages highly successful. So Ohno was right when he pointed this out 45 years ago.

Robert Byers · 16 December 2014

Do humans fit on a tree? Is there any bio sci evidence to justify this tree concept beyond mere looks/dna-looks??
People think we are more evolved because we are smarter. Its not about feet.
If evolution is about changes then why not the more changes there are the more one has evolved? not better but more!
is the author against human centered concepts in civilization? just a joke!

NO EVIDENCE , again, was presented from bio sci to demonstrate to a critic, a slight majority etc in North America, as to why peopler/plants are evolved from common descent place.
Its just presumed. Looks is not bio sci evidence.
A creator would also do it this way. Basic plans would easily explain like looks at basic levels.
Man/ape being a special case because we are special. Thats why only us study these things.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 16 December 2014

DS said: Well other than insects, these are the two most diverse and dominant groups in the terrestrial environment. They have certainly been highly successful in terms of speciation and diversification.
You are partially right: angiosperms are one of the most diverse groups of organisms. But vertebrates? Barely 30,000 terrestrial species, if that. Nematodes greatly outnumber them. And of course we know more about the numbers of vertebrate species than about other taxa.
Ferns cannot have more common genome duplications, since all angiosperms and vertebrates posses them as a derived character. This is evolutionary polyploidy rather than regular polyploidy. It involves not just duplicate numbers of chromosomes but significant neofunctionalization and diploidization. Of course ferns are also successful in the sense that they still exist and continue to evolve. But they are certainly not as successful as angiosperms or vertebrates by most reasonable measures. My apologies to fern lovers everywhere.
I would like to see you justify the claim that the vertebrate genome duplications were in some way special compared to any ordinary case of polyploidy. They're all followed by neofunctionalization and diploidization, given enough time. Same for the polyploidy at the base of angiosperms.
The point is that gene duplication, sometimes through whole genome duplication, provides the raw material for mutation and selection, sometimes making entire lineages highly successful. So Ohno was right when he pointed this out 45 years ago.
Well, it provides some of the raw material. Whether it's the reason for success of lineages is a question that would be difficult to answer. You certainly can't claim that the success of vertebrates (such as it is) and angiosperms is due to genome duplications, just because there are genome duplications at the relevant nodes. Nor can you claim that these are special genome duplications unlike regular polyploidy. Are you going to claim that teleosts are twice as special as vertebrates in general? My point about the ferns was that polyploidy happens all over the phylogenetic tree. When the barn wall is covered with targets, you can't claim that the fact you hit a particular bullseye means that one is special.

DS · 16 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Do humans fit on a tree? Is there any bio sci evidence to justify this tree concept beyond mere looks/dna-looks?? People think we are more evolved because we are smarter. Its not about feet. If evolution is about changes then why not the more changes there are the more one has evolved? not better but more! is the author against human centered concepts in civilization? just a joke! NO EVIDENCE , again, was presented from bio sci to demonstrate to a critic, a slight majority etc in North America, as to why peopler/plants are evolved from common descent place. Its just presumed. Looks is not bio sci evidence. A creator would also do it this way. Basic plans would easily explain like looks at basic levels. Man/ape being a special case because we are special. Thats why only us study these things.
You were presented with the evidence. You ignored it. Piss off.

Robert Byers · 16 December 2014

harold said: The entire biosphere is all the product of billions of years of evolution since the origin of cellular life, so the term "more evolved" is meaningless. In fairness, some anatomic, physiologic, or molecular features are more recent that others. Cell membranes and the citric acid cycle are extremely ancient features of life, for example, whereas internal skeletons in animals is a much more recent feature. Humans do have some unique recent features, such as our particular bipedal gait (bipedalism itself is fairly ancient but not our type), or particular brain structure, our speech (recent evidence shows that bird speech, which is far more ancient than human speech, may be surprisingly related, but our speech evolved independently from theirs). It's mildly interesting that birds have a form of speech, bipedalism, and specialized forelimbs, just like us. So humans are clearly not "more evolved" than anything else in the biosphere, but we do have many recent traits. It's often conjectured that some types of organisms like amoebae have relatively fewer recent traits and have been more similar to distant past ancestors for longer. This is hard to confirm but may not be totally unreasonable.
Well you said BRAIN STRUCTURE. I think you mean smarts. so we have unique intelligence. We have evolved more in intelligence. Our speech , I say, is just a reflection on intelligence. its not evolved any more then animals. Parrots etc prove this. They easily speak like people. indeed all creatures could as i understand. they have the vocal ability. They are just too dumb. Parrots are not a aberration but a revelation of the true equation. Its not the making of sounds but what to do with them. Human speech never was falling behind human thought. Its impossible. All creatures use sounds and so have speech. WE are smarter and have speech ability that crosses thresholds as we judge it. It must be humans have evolved more if there are more changes from a common origin. As said the cockroach is admitted to not have evolved much from a point in the past. So evolution is not a fixed pace but is relative. I'm just helping you guys as I insist evolution never happened beyond the irrelevant.

DS · 16 December 2014

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas said:
DS said: Well other than insects, these are the two most diverse and dominant groups in the terrestrial environment. They have certainly been highly successful in terms of speciation and diversification.
You are partially right: angiosperms are one of the most diverse groups of organisms. But vertebrates? Barely 30,000 terrestrial species, if that. Nematodes greatly outnumber them. And of course we know more about the numbers of vertebrate species than about other taxa.
Ferns cannot have more common genome duplications, since all angiosperms and vertebrates posses them as a derived character. This is evolutionary polyploidy rather than regular polyploidy. It involves not just duplicate numbers of chromosomes but significant neofunctionalization and diploidization. Of course ferns are also successful in the sense that they still exist and continue to evolve. But they are certainly not as successful as angiosperms or vertebrates by most reasonable measures. My apologies to fern lovers everywhere.
I would like to see you justify the claim that the vertebrate genome duplications were in some way special compared to any ordinary case of polyploidy. They're all followed by neofunctionalization and diploidization, given enough time. Same for the polyploidy at the base of angiosperms.
The point is that gene duplication, sometimes through whole genome duplication, provides the raw material for mutation and selection, sometimes making entire lineages highly successful. So Ohno was right when he pointed this out 45 years ago.
Well, it provides some of the raw material. Whether it's the reason for success of lineages is a question that would be difficult to answer. You certainly can't claim that the success of vertebrates (such as it is) and angiosperms is due to genome duplications, just because there are genome duplications at the relevant nodes. Nor can you claim that these are special genome duplications unlike regular polyploidy. Are you going to claim that teleosts are twice as special as vertebrates in general? My point about the ferns was that polyploidy happens all over the phylogenetic tree. When the barn wall is covered with targets, you can't claim that the fact you hit a particular bullseye means that one is special.
As for the first part, there are at least three times more terrestrial vertebrate species than fern species and probably as many aquatic forms as well. And there are probably 25 times more angiosperms than ferns. As for morphological diversity, that is apparent as well. As for the second point, when ferns diversify to the extent that the angiosperms have, then you will be justified in your characterization. Until then, not so much. You are certainly correct about that last part. However, there is very good evidence that diversification of the vertebrate body is directly due to duplications of the hox genes, which were created in part due to two whole genome duplications. The point was not that whole genome duplications are a necessary or sufficient condition for diversification, only that they can sometimes result in diversification and for very good reasons. If you want a counter example, I am don't think that the inset lineage had such a basal whole genome duplication event. That is certainly a better counter example than ferns.

Mark Sturtevant · 16 December 2014

I think that statements like saying 'humans evolved from monkeys' or that 'humans evolved from apes' ignores the detail that the terms 'monkey' and 'ape' is meant to refer to modern species. If one wants to be strictly formal, it is best to say that 'humans and monkeys (or apes) evolved from common ancestors'. For example, the great apes are modern primates that walk around on their knuckles but our lineage likely never did that.
Similarly, to say that 'humans are monkeys (or apes) runs into a similar problem. I know that such constructions are desirable for cladistics, but I think the phrase to use here is that 'humans and apes are both hominids'.
As for the basal group fallacy, I agree entirely with the descriptions above. But I hold out that it is ok to refer the the characters that are prominent in a group to be basal. So the characters of a lung fish are basal to the lungfishes and tetrapods.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 16 December 2014

DS said: As for the first part, there are at least three times more terrestrial vertebrate species than fern species and probably as many aquatic forms as well. And there are probably 25 times more angiosperms than ferns. As for morphological diversity, that is apparent as well.
If you're under the impression that I'm holding up ferns as the top end of the scale nature, please disabuse yourself. I merely used them as an example of a group with frequent polyploidy which, under your theory, ought to be the most diverse group of all. I will agree that angiosperms probably have more disparity (the technical term for what you call "morphological diversity" than ferns, but I have no basis for deciding whether vertebrates do or do not.
As for the second point, when ferns diversify to the extent that the angiosperms have, then you will be justified in your characterization. Until then, not so much.
What characterization? You're the one who's claiming that polyploidy is the key to diversity. I merely pointed out a counterexample. I have no reason to suppose that polyploidy should lead to diversity, and that was my point. Polyploidy is all over, in diverse and depauperate taxa, and its frequency does not seem in any way correlated with diversity. You are indulging in one of the main parlor games of evolutionary biology: finding the key innovation. The problem is that it's very hard to test whether the key innovation is in fact key. But a good start would be an objective appraisal of both diversity and trait distribution. I'm trying to point out that neither diversity nor trait distribution is in favor of your hypothesis.
You are certainly correct about that last part. However, there is very good evidence that diversification of the vertebrate body is directly due to duplications of the hox genes, which were created in part due to two whole genome duplications. The point was not that whole genome duplications are a necessary or sufficient condition for diversification, only that they can sometimes result in diversification and for very good reasons. If you want a counter example, I am don't think that the inset lineage had such a basal whole genome duplication event. That is certainly a better counter example than ferns.
What is this evidence? I'm sure that it's true that polyploidy can sometimes result in diversification, as can any sort of mutation. If you want to fall back to that weak claim, I have no argument with you. I have no idea whether insects had a basal genome duplication, but the node "fern" is no more special than is any node within ferns, and every ancient node with a genome duplication and whose descendants aren't very diverse is a counterexample. Again, my claim: there is no particular relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 16 December 2014

Mark Sturtevant said: I think that statements like saying 'humans evolved from monkeys' or that 'humans evolved from apes' ignores the detail that the terms 'monkey' and 'ape' is meant to refer to modern species.
Are they? So you would say that extinct members of, say, Cercopithecidae would not be considered "monkeys"? That seems very unlikely and is certainly at odds with the paleontological literature. And I think that if you presented a member of the general public with a reconstruction of any such fossil he would immediately identify it as a monkey.
If one wants to be strictly formal, it is best to say that 'humans and monkeys (or apes) evolved from common ancestors'. For example, the great apes are modern primates that walk around on their knuckles but our lineage likely never did that.
Are you claiming that chimps, gorillas, and orangutans evolved knuckle-walking convergently? That seems highly unparsimonious to me. The common ancestor of humans, guenons, and howler monkeys was a monkey. How else could you describe it? The common ancestor of all the great apes was a great ape (and of course this is also the common ancestor of humans and great apes). How else could you describe it? It just isn't the case that these terms describe only extant species. Your main legitimate option would be to claim that the terms usually refer not to taxa but to groups united by particular characteristics, and that humans aren't apes because apes are hairy and walk on their knuckles, and aren't monkeys because monkeys have tails. Perfectly legitimate if your appeal is to the common definition. But why would you claim that a revised definition more in keeping with modern science (cladistics, if you like) is illegitimate or wrong?
Similarly, to say that 'humans are monkeys (or apes) runs into a similar problem. I know that such constructions are desirable for cladistics, but I think the phrase to use here is that 'humans and apes are both hominids'. As for the basal group fallacy, I agree entirely with the descriptions above. But I hold out that it is ok to refer the the characters that are prominent in a group to be basal. So the characters of a lung fish are basal to the lungfishes and tetrapods.
Some of the characters of a lungfish are basal. Some of the characters of tetrapods are similarly basal. Though "ancestral" would probably be a better word. "Primitive" would be better too, though it has unfortunate connotations, which is why it's often replaced in the literature by "ancestral".

https://me.yahoo.com/a/JxVN0eQFqtmgoY7wC1cZM44ET_iAanxHQmLgYgX_Zhn8#57cad · 16 December 2014

Are you claiming that chimps, gorillas, and orangutans evolved knuckle-walking convergently? That seems highly unparsimonious to me. The common ancestor of humans, guenons, and howler monkeys was a monkey. How else could you describe it? The common ancestor of all the great apes was a great ape (and of course this is also the common ancestor of humans and great apes). How else could you describe it? It just isn’t the case that these terms describe only extant species.
I could go either way on that, for myself, but consistency would be nice. Often people claim that humans are in fact fish, since both fish and humans evolved from "fish," but clearly tetrapods and modern fish didn't evolve from modern fish. They evolved from fishlike critters that we mostly do call "fish," since there aren't any really good alternatives to that name, and there are a lot of similarities (analogies, and a lot of homologies that aren't all that different) between modern fish and ancestral "fish." I don't know of a good practical alternative saying that we're eukaryotes, fish, etc. Maybe "eukaryote" gets a pass due to its always having been more of a wide-ranging classification, but really, why should it? Ancient eukaryotes were different from all modern eukaryotes, so it would seem that being consistent would demand giving up that term for ancient nucleated cells, or, possibly, giving it up for modern nucleated cells. I think it gets old to say we evolved from "an ape-like ancestor" and the like. We're simply in the same clade as fish, and so I don't know why we can't just say we're all fish, if substantially changed from ancestral forms. Not in everyday language, presumably, but when we're serious about evolution. We just have to know that modern fish are a good deal different from early fish, but then I think we already knew that. It's all the more obvious when we include humans with "fish," if clearly divergent from modern "fish." Glen Davidson

KlausH · 16 December 2014

The "platypus fallacy" comment makes little sense to me. If a human and a platypus are closely examined, it would be obvious that they were related, and it would be easy to deduce some traits of the common ancestor, such as internal skeleton, DNA, four limbs, paired eyes and lungs, et cetera. One would also get a good idea as to how and when the derived characteristics appeared.

DS · 16 December 2014

4ras wrote

"Again, my claim: there is no particular relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity."

Again, there is good evidence that this is not true in vertebrates and probably not true in angiosperms. There are also good reasons to suppose that it might be generally true. I suppose the only way to tell if this is a statistically significant relationship is to do a statistical analysis. A few examples and a few counter examples are not sufficient to resolve the matter conclusively.

DS · 16 December 2014

Here is a recent review article that seems to indicate that there are still many unanswered questions in the area under discussion:

Madlung (2013) Polyploidy and its effect on evolutionary success: old questions revisited with new tools. Heredity (2013) 110, 99–104

robert van bakel · 16 December 2014

Well done! After an early scare, ignoring Byers tantrum has worked, and I can read in peace.

Yardbird · 16 December 2014

robert van bakel said: Well done! After an early scare, ignoring Byers tantrum has worked, and I can read in peace.
Yes, let's not play the frog to his scorpion.

Emily Thompson · 16 December 2014

KlausH said: The "platypus fallacy" comment makes little sense to me. If a human and a platypus are closely examined, it would be obvious that they were related, and it would be easy to deduce some traits of the common ancestor, such as internal skeleton, DNA, four limbs, paired eyes and lungs, et cetera. One would also get a good idea as to how and when the derived characteristics appeared.
The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 17 December 2014

DS said: 4ras wrote
(Why am I eras rather than John Harshman? As far as I know I didn't do anything different.)
"Again, my claim: there is no particular relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity." Again, there is good evidence that this is not true in vertebrates and probably not true in angiosperms. There are also good reasons to suppose that it might be generally true. I suppose the only way to tell if this is a statistically significant relationship is to do a statistical analysis. A few examples and a few counter examples are not sufficient to resolve the matter conclusively.
I have asked you previously what this good evidence is. What you have done so far is a posteriori. You have two clades you consider diverse, among all the diverse clades in the tree of life, and have chosen them because they have genome duplications in their pasts. The metaphor of the barn wall of bullseyes is still instructive. It would be nice to do a statistical test, but I doubt the data are available. It takes a lot of work to discover an instance of ancient polyploidy.

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas · 17 December 2014

Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits.
Isn't that a description of ancestral state reconstruction? Would you claim it's invalid? Of course in order to determine which traits are derived and which are ancestral, you generally need a rooted tree. The fact that the platypus is an outgroup to placental mammals and that more distant outgroups also lay eggs should be helpful in deciding character polarity.

Mike Elzinga · 17 December 2014

Thinking back to Andreas Wagner's recent book, The Arrival of the Fittest, and his discussion of "genotype networks," I suppose this concept is more applicable to large molecules in which a network of genotypes produce essentially the same phenotype; say a number of different genotype molecules that perform essentially the same metabolic processes.

I understand that there are some precedents for such an idea; some of it coming from the fact that, in many organic compounds, it is the shape of the molecule and not necessarily the specific atoms at given locations that determine the reactive properties of the molecule.

It prompts the question about what happens when many layers of complexity are added on top of this as an organism becomes more complex; namely, can the same genotype produce different phenotypes that are reproductively isolated? Alternatively, could different genotypes produce essentially the same phenotype at these higher levels of complexity? I presume the latter case would be related to "convergent evolution."

I guess the more general question would be, "Where along the scale of complexity does speciation occur?" Is is necessarily at the level of the DNA involved in reproduction?

More specifically, if the molecular processes become more susceptible to ambient physical conditions as increasingly complex molecular assemblies start interacting with smaller binding energies (e.g., we already know that temperature during incubation can determine sex in some animals), couldn't mutations and variations lead to sufficiently different phenotypes that speciation can occur above the level of the DNA involved in sexual reproduction? Wouldn't that be genetic isolation?

What is evo-devo telling us?

Mark Sturtevant · 17 December 2014

A Masked Panda (4ts) said: Are they? So you would say that extinct members of, say, Cercopithecidae would not be considered "monkeys"?...
The terms are informal and have plenty of loose usage in the literature, but to be formal about it neither is applied to humans. To be specific, the Cercopithecoidea and the Platyrrhini are 'monkeys'. That informal term is not extended to the Hominoidea. In the Hominoidea the term 'ape' is applied to the greater and lesser apes, but that informal term is not extended to include the humans. Yes, it would be the case that extinct members of these groups would be called monkeys or apes, so I am wrong there. But so far I will stick to my remaining guns -- humans are not monkeys or apes, but we share common ancestry.

TomS · 17 December 2014

I think that one of the problems about the names for the primates is specific to English: We have the two words, "ape" and "monkey". "Ape" is the older term, and, before Europeans started exploring, the only non-human primates known were what we now call "Old World monkeys" - that is what were called "apes". For example, that is what the King James Version means by "ape". Somebody decided to change the designation after the other primates were discovered and the word "monkey" was introduced to English. It could have been that new word "monkey" was restricted to New World monkeys, and "ape" would have been kept for Old World monkeys and the newly discovered gorillas, etc.

Palaeonictis · 17 December 2014

DS said: 4ras wrote "Again, my claim: there is no particular relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity." Again, there is good evidence that this is not true in vertebrates and probably not true in angiosperms. There are also good reasons to suppose that it might be generally true. I suppose the only way to tell if this is a statistically significant relationship is to do a statistical analysis. A few examples and a few counter examples are not sufficient to resolve the matter conclusively.
Mark Sturtevant said:
A Masked Panda (4ts) said: Are they? So you would say that extinct members of, say, Cercopithecidae would not be considered "monkeys"?...
The terms are informal and have plenty of loose usage in the literature, but to be formal about it neither is applied to humans. To be specific, the Cercopithecoidea and the Platyrrhini are 'monkeys'. That informal term is not extended to the Hominoidea. In the Hominoidea the term 'ape' is applied to the greater and lesser apes, but that informal term is not extended to include the humans. Yes, it would be the case that extinct members of these groups would be called monkeys or apes, so I am wrong there. But so far I will stick to my remaining guns -- humans are not monkeys or apes, but we share common ancestry.
If both clades are 'monkeys', then wouldn't the common ancestor of both groups, as well as the hominoidea and kin, be considered a 'monkey'? Additionally, Cercopithecoidea is more closely related to Hominoidea than they are to Platyrrhini. So since both Cercopithecoidea and Hominoidea come from an ancestor that could be called a "monkey", then by all definitions humans and non-human apes should be considered "monkeys". By definition, "monkey" is paraphyletic and "ape" is paraphyletic, so the only way for it to be monophyletic would be to include "hominini" or Homo under the general category of ape and monkey.

DS · 17 December 2014

https://www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=AItOawkbohD6goiMSfag_XaXq20elmGG7Gs4tas said:
DS said: 4ras wrote
(Why am I eras rather than John Harshman? As far as I know I didn't do anything different.)
"Again, my claim: there is no particular relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity." Again, there is good evidence that this is not true in vertebrates and probably not true in angiosperms. There are also good reasons to suppose that it might be generally true. I suppose the only way to tell if this is a statistically significant relationship is to do a statistical analysis. A few examples and a few counter examples are not sufficient to resolve the matter conclusively.
I have asked you previously what this good evidence is. What you have done so far is a posteriori. You have two clades you consider diverse, among all the diverse clades in the tree of life, and have chosen them because they have genome duplications in their pasts. The metaphor of the barn wall of bullseyes is still instructive. It would be nice to do a statistical test, but I doubt the data are available. It takes a lot of work to discover an instance of ancient polyploidy.
Sorry John, I didn't know it was you. As for our discussion, you claimed that there was no relationship between whole-genome duplication and diversity. Apparently the evidence is inconclusive on that point. I cannot say that you are wrong, only that more evidence is need to draw that conclusion. I have provided two examples where that is certainly not the case and good reasons for supposing that there is, or at least can be, a causal relationship. You are correct that it takes a lot of work to discover an instance of ancient polyploidy. The vertebrate duplications were only recently confirmed using whole genome sequences. My point is that when more evidence becomes available, a more definitive answer to this question will be found, Until then, I will continue to note the importance of such events in the history of life and assume their general importance for theoretical reasons. You are of course free to hold the opposite view, but I wouldn't recommend being too dogmatic about it, since the evidence is apparently not yet conclusive.

harold · 17 December 2014

I would like to see you justify the claim that the vertebrate genome duplications were in some way special compared to any ordinary case of polyploidy.
Does the hypothesis that vertebrates had a gene duplication event actually refer to polyploidy? I understand that some fish and amphibians are tetraploid. Many vertebrates are diploid, though, like humans. In humans tetraploidy would be fatal in early development (some few cell lineages like some neurons later become polyploidy). Did vertebrates hypothetically go through a tetraploid ancestor stage?

DS · 17 December 2014

From the abstract of the paper that demonstrated the two vertebrate duplication events:

"Our results highlight the potential for these large-scale genomic events to have driven the evolutionary success of the vertebrate lineage."

PLOS Biology (2005) 3(10):e314

So it seems that, at least in this case, the duplications were essential to the success of the lineage.

DS · 17 December 2014

harold said:
I would like to see you justify the claim that the vertebrate genome duplications were in some way special compared to any ordinary case of polyploidy.
Does the hypothesis that vertebrates had a gene duplication event actually refer to polyploidy? I understand that some fish and amphibians are tetraploid. Many vertebrates are diploid, though, like humans. In humans tetraploidy would be fatal in early development (some few cell lineages like some neurons later become polyploidy). Did vertebrates hypothetically go through a tetraploid ancestor stage?
In the paper cited above, the authors conclude that the most likely scenario in the vertebrates was two rounds of closely spaced auto-tetraploid events. So yes, it appears that there was a tetraploid ancestor and that diploidization subsequently occurred. Interestingly enough, there was apparently a third whole-genome duplication at the base of one of the most diverse and successful lineages of vertebrates, the teleost fish.

harold · 17 December 2014

DS said:
harold said:
I would like to see you justify the claim that the vertebrate genome duplications were in some way special compared to any ordinary case of polyploidy.
Does the hypothesis that vertebrates had a gene duplication event actually refer to polyploidy? I understand that some fish and amphibians are tetraploid. Many vertebrates are diploid, though, like humans. In humans tetraploidy would be fatal in early development (some few cell lineages like some neurons later become polyploidy). Did vertebrates hypothetically go through a tetraploid ancestor stage?
In the paper cited above, the authors conclude that the most likely scenario in the vertebrates was two rounds of closely spaced auto-tetraploid events. So yes, it appears that there was a tetraploid ancestor and that diploidization subsequently occurred. Interestingly enough, there was apparently a third whole-genome duplication at the base of one of the most diverse and successful lineages of vertebrates, the teleost fish.
That's extremely interesting. I was aware, or thought I was aware, that one of the pieces of evidence supporting the vertebrate genome duplication hypothesis was the presence of numerous apparently duplicated genes in diploid vertebrate genomes that have been sequenced, like human and mouse. Eukaryotes have a seemingly arbitrary number of chromosomes in their haploid genome. In a sense every genome is one giant haploid chromosome, divided into segments with telomere caps and whatnot according to the chromosome number of the species (hence chromosome number between humans and chimpanzees due to a fusion event, for example), and then copied in parallel to generate diploid or polyploid genomes in most life stages of most eukaryotes, with haploid stages also occurring in plenty of lineages. (Meanwhile in bacteria it's always just one haploid chromosome plus whatever plasmids may be present, which are themselves haploid.) Humans are rigidly diploid - aberrations of chromosome number always cause phenotypic abnormalities and except for a few involving small chromosomes or the X chromosome are fatal during development. But changes in ploidy having little impact on phenotype is common in other parts of the biosphere, including among some vertebrates that are less evolved, just kidding, have more conserved ancient traits, such as fish and salamanders. So a tetraploid ancestor is hardly a shocking idea.

John Harshman · 17 December 2014

DS said: From the abstract of the paper that demonstrated the two vertebrate duplication events: "Our results highlight the potential for these large-scale genomic events to have driven the evolutionary success of the vertebrate lineage." PLOS Biology (2005) 3(10):e314 So it seems that, at least in this case, the duplications were essential to the success of the lineage.
No, it seems that the authors of that paper were speculating about such a thing. Here's the relevant portion of the discussion: "Although our study does not specifically address the effect that 2R has had on vertebrate evolution, we note two interesting observations. First, the vast majority of duplicated genes were subsequently deleted, indicating that relatively few genes may have been responsible for the increased complexity seen in vertebrates. Second, it is possible that many genes were loosed from constraint after the genome duplications and experienced an accelerated rate of sequence change before returning to single copy, and it is possible that this has played some role in the evolution of vertebrate complexity [44]. "The mechanism of these genome duplication events, whether two separate rounds of either auto- or allo-tetraploidy or a single octoploidy, remains uncertain. We speculate that the most likely scenario is two rounds of closely spaced auto-tetraploidization events, based on the following observations. For most sets of tetra-paralogs, some pairs within the set extend over a longer region than others, indicating two distinct duplication events. If, alternatively, there had been a single octoploidy, then we would have to hypothesize multiple occasions in which two of the four descendant genomic segments lost the same sets of genes independently, which seems unlikely. The phylogenetic trees for the gene families are not consistently nested, as would be expected in the case of allo-tetraploidy or two widely spaced auto-tetraploidy events. Finally, tree topologies of genes within paralogy blocks are not always congruent, indicating that the process of gene loss and rediploidization spanned the duplication events [17]. "It remains unclear to what extent such large-scale genomic events have driven macroevolutionary change versus the regular accumulation of small mutations, as is the central tenet of the classical model of evolution. We imagine that rapid and extensive evolutionary change could possibly be an emergent property of having all genes duplicated at the same time, allowing this expanded gene repertoire to evolve together, and so reach a greater level of interaction and complexity than could evolve from cumulative single gene duplications. WGDs have occurred in many lineages, including frogs [45,46], fish [41,42,47], yeast [27–30], Arabidopsis [27–30], and corn and several other crop species [48], all of which are being studied by modern genomics techniques. We view the broad and pervasive distribution of these tetra-paralogons in the human genome, despite the remarkably small number of genes remaining in duplicate, as robust evidence that 2R occurred at the base of Vertebrata, and anticipate that future studies will soon illuminate the roles this has played in the evolutionary success of the vertebrate lineage." As a bonus, this passage answers Harold's question. Yes, it's polyploidy.

DS · 17 December 2014

OK. Then here is a more direct test off exactly how whole genome duplication has led directly to diversification:

Hoffman et. al. (2012) WHole-genome duplication spurred the functional diversification of the globin gene superfamily in vertebrates. Molecular Biology and Evolution 29(1):404-423.

From the abstract:

"The physiological division of labor between the oxygen transport function of hemoglobin and the oxygen storage function of myoglobin played a pivotal role in the evolution of aerobic energy metabolism, supporting the hypothesis that WGDs helped fuel key innovations in vertebrate evolution."

Now of course this doesn't prove that whole genome duplications always lead to diversification, or that they are required for diversification, It only proves that they can, and for good reason. It would be premature to declare that they don't have anything to do with evolutionary success, since this is a direct test and confirmation of exactly that hypothesis.

This discussion is getting off topic. I will respond further on the bathroom wall if anyone wants to continue.

mattdance18 · 17 December 2014

harold said: Cockroaches have survived many events that led to mass extinction of other lineages. That certainly means that they have a recognizably ancient morphology, but does it mean that they are "less evolved"? They evolved traits that were better adapted to surviving those events even before those events occurred. They were relatively selected for by those events. (I despise cockroaches as much as the next person, just making the point that they are a persistently successful lineage.)
It might be worth pointing out, and rather apropos of the topic at hand, that modern cockroaches are Cretaceous in age, possibly late Jurassic. Grimaldi and Engel discuss this in their excellent Evolution of the Insects in the section on Dictyoptera, which includes the modern orders of roaches, termites, and mantises. As they note, the belief in paleozoic roaches (e.g. from the swamps of the Carboniferous) stems mainly from a couple of readily discernible external morphological features, namely leathery forewings and a large pronotum. But the devil is in the details, and there are numerous differences between those paleozoic creatures and roaches, strictly speaking (especially in the reproductive system, where the full ovipositor is an especially obvious difference -- albeit one that is left out of many artistic representations of the earlier period, so you get modern roaches drawn into an anachronistic habitat for them). Hence the term often applied to these earlier cousins of modern roaches, "roachoids." They look superficially like modern roaches in some respects, but they're simply not the same lineage of modern roaches. And modern roaches are nothing like as ancient as they're often portrayed -- not much older than the oldest birds or true mammals, if at all. Also for what it's worth, termites are modern roaches, in exactly the same sense that humans are apes! The closest living relatives of Cryptocercid wood-eating cockroaches are the termites, not their other fellow cockroaches. Just a couple points of interest.

John Harshman · 17 December 2014

DS said: OK. Then here is a more direct test off exactly how whole genome duplication has led directly to diversification: Hoffman et. al. (2012) WHole-genome duplication spurred the functional diversification of the globin gene superfamily in vertebrates. Molecular Biology and Evolution 29(1):404-423. From the abstract: "The physiological division of labor between the oxygen transport function of hemoglobin and the oxygen storage function of myoglobin played a pivotal role in the evolution of aerobic energy metabolism, supporting the hypothesis that WGDs helped fuel key innovations in vertebrate evolution." Now of course this doesn't prove that whole genome duplications always lead to diversification, or that they are required for diversification, It only proves that they can, and for good reason. It would be premature to declare that they don't have anything to do with evolutionary success, since this is a direct test and confirmation of exactly that hypothesis. This discussion is getting off topic. I will respond further on the bathroom wall if anyone wants to continue.
My final take-home message: Whole genome duplication can lead to key innovations (traits that promote "adaptive radiations"). Or not. Individual gene duplication can lead to key innovations. Or not. Indels can lead to key innovations. Or not. Point mutations can lead to key innovations. Or not.

DS · 17 December 2014

Agreed.

harold · 17 December 2014

Well, it's a relief to know that cockroaches have only been plaguing the Earth since the Cretaceous, or at worst, late Jurassic period. Unfortunately that does still make them a persistently successful phenotype that has survived major extinction events.

Just Bob · 17 December 2014

harold said: Well, it's a relief to know that cockroaches have only been plaguing the Earth since the Cretaceous
Reminds me of the lady who attended a lecture by an astronomer and approached him with a worried look afterwards. "When did you say the sun would swell up and destroy the Earth?" she asked. "Around seven billion years from now," he answered. "But why are you looking so panicked?" "Oh, thank goodness!" she replied with obvious relief. "I thought you said seven million!"

Henry J · 17 December 2014

Around seven billion years from now

7 Billion? The Wiki article I read not too long ago about "Yellow Dwarf Life Cycle" indicated about 5 billion before the planet ceases to be a planet (that's if it's orbit doesn't change significantly before then). But, it also said the planet would cease to be habitable at all in a little over one billion years. But that's with a gradual decline in overall habitability throughout that time (especially in or near the tropics, and possibly excepting the polar regions). (And here too this assumes no significant change in orbit in the meantime, which can't really be guaranteed over that time frame.) Henry

Henry J · 17 December 2014

I've noticed that the http://tolweb.org/tree site appears to avoid using clade names that have colloquial meanings different than the evolutionary meaning. That makes sense to me; is it a widespread practice in the field?

John Harshman · 17 December 2014

Henry J said: I've noticed that the http://tolweb.org/tree site appears to avoid using clade names that have colloquial meanings different than the evolutionary meaning. That makes sense to me; is it a widespread practice in the field?
Could you be more specific? What clade names are you talking about?

Henry J · 17 December 2014

Specific?

Eukaryotes

Opisthokont

Metazoa

Bilateria

Deuterostomia

Chordata

Craniata

Vertebrat

Gnathostomata

Teleostomi

Osteichthyes

Sarcopterygii

Terrestrial Vertebrates

Tetrapod

Anthracosauria

Amniota

Reptilia

Synapsida

Eupelycosauria

Sphenacodontia

Sphenacodontoidea

Therapsida

Theriodontia

Cynodontia

Mammalia

Eutheria

Primates

Hominidae

Most of those are (AFAIK) technical terms that don't have common usage meanings that are paraphyletic groups. Not quite all of them, though.

(I didn't want to double space that list, but I don't know how to get it to insert a line break without a blank line between items.)

Henry

John Harshman · 17 December 2014

Henry J said: Specific? ... Most of those are (AFAIK) technical terms that don't have common usage meanings that are paraphyletic groups. Not quite all of them, though.
Actually, I meant what names you think they're avoiding. Well of course they use the technical terms in classifications. But nobody seems to be avoiding anything there, just using technical terms appropriately on a technical web site.

Joe Felsenstein · 18 December 2014

In reply to Mark Sturtevant and John Harshman:

Another way of addressing the issue of whether we are descended from monkeys is this: If ceboids (New World monkeys) and cercopithecoids (New World monkeys) are both to be called monkeys, what about their common ancestor? If we saw it, would be call it a monkey? It certainly wouldn't look like a hippopotamus! I am pretty sure that we would also call it a monkey. If a layperson were to see it, and we didn't call it a monkey, they would ask why.

Of course, it would be our ancestor too, and an ancestor of all the apes. So yes, we are descended from a "monkey".

Similarly if we saw the common ancestor of all apes (including us), we would certainly call that an ape. It would look like an ape, and people's eyebrows would be raised if we didn't call it that. So we are descended from apes.

I'd go farther and say, even without making a technical taxonomic definition of "ape" and "monkey", that this means that we are apes and that we and all the apes are also monkeys. I can see that other people might not join me in that. They might point out that I probably wouldn't also say that we are worms, even though the common ancestor of all things called worms might look an awful lot like a worm, and it would be our ancestor as well.

harold · 18 December 2014

The common English word "monkey" does not include humans in ordinary usage, and I can prove it right here with a simple thought experiment. I hope in advance that no-one is dull enough to imagine that I am denying the close evolutionary relationship between humans and our fellow primates, just making a point about language.

I'm going to show you a picture of a spider monkey and a human. The spider monkey is holding a banana and the human is holding an orange.

Now I'm going say "Relying on conventional usage of the English language in conversation, what is the monkey holding"?

If you say "I need more information, there are two monkeys", you're being pedantic.

The word monkey is a word that is informal, but that usefully distinguishes humans (and many other things) from a different group of primate.

TomS · 18 December 2014

And let's say we sought a response with a marmoset, a baboon, a gibbon, and a tarsier. I wonder how many people would treat the marmoset and the baboon as the only two monkeys; and the gibbon as the only ape?

fnxtr · 18 December 2014

Henry J said:

Around seven billion years from now

7 Billion? The Wiki article I read not too long ago about "Yellow Dwarf Life Cycle" indicated about 5 billion before the planet ceases to be a planet (that's if it's orbit doesn't change significantly before then). But, it also said the planet would cease to be habitable at all in a little over one billion years. But that's with a gradual decline in overall habitability throughout that time (especially in or near the tropics, and possibly excepting the polar regions). (And here too this assumes no significant change in orbit in the meantime, which can't really be guaranteed over that time frame.) Henry
Maybe the lecture was 2 billion years ago.

Palaeonictis · 18 December 2014

Henry J said: Specific? Eukaryotes Opisthokont Metazoa Bilateria Deuterostomia Chordata Craniata Vertebrat Gnathostomata Teleostomi Osteichthyes Sarcopterygii Terrestrial Vertebrates Tetrapod Anthracosauria Amniota Reptilia Synapsida Eupelycosauria Sphenacodontia Sphenacodontoidea Therapsida Theriodontia Cynodontia Mammalia Eutheria Primates Hominidae Most of those are (AFAIK) technical terms that don't have common usage meanings that are paraphyletic groups. Not quite all of them, though. (I didn't want to double space that list, but I don't know how to get it to insert a line break without a blank line between items.) Henry
Eucynodontia is one of several classifications that come between 'cynodontia' and 'mammalia', the other ones are probainognathia, mammaliamorpha, and the mammaliaformes. Also, Anthracosaurians should be properly considered a sister clade to that of the Amniota, so instead you should replace "Anthracosauria" with "Reptiliomorpha". Also, the TOLWEB classification is a bit out-dated, for example there is no clade "Terrestrial Vertebrates", it is just "Tetrapods", which are classed in the clade "Tetrapodomorpha". Synapsids aren't reptiles, as well. Now to move on to the mammals, "Eutheria" should be properly placed in "Theria", with several more clades following it, "Zatheria", "Cladotheria", and "Theriiformes". And the lower classification, the hominidae should be placed in 'hominoidea', which should be placed in 'Catahrini", which should be placed in "Haplorhini", which is placed in primates, which should be placed in "primatomorpha", which should be placed in "Euarchonta", which should be placed in "Euarchontaglires", which should be placed in "Placentalia".

https://me.yahoo.com/a/JxVN0eQFqtmgoY7wC1cZM44ET_iAanxHQmLgYgX_Zhn8#57cad · 18 December 2014

Joe Felsenstein said: In reply to Mark Sturtevant and John Harshman: Another way of addressing the issue of whether we are descended from monkeys is this: If ceboids (New World monkeys) and cercopithecoids ([Old] World monkeys) are both to be called monkeys, what about their common ancestor? If we saw it, would be call it a monkey? It certainly wouldn't look like a hippopotamus! I am pretty sure that we would also call it a monkey. If a layperson were to see it, and we didn't call it a monkey, they would ask why. Of course, it would be our ancestor too, and an ancestor of all the apes. So yes, we are descended from a "monkey". Similarly if we saw the common ancestor of all apes (including us), we would certainly call that an ape. It would look like an ape, and people's eyebrows would be raised if we didn't call it that. So we are descended from apes. I'd go farther and say, even without making a technical taxonomic definition of "ape" and "monkey", that this means that we are apes and that we and all the apes are also monkeys. I can see that other people might not join me in that. They might point out that I probably wouldn't also say that we are worms, even though the common ancestor of all things called worms might look an awful lot like a worm, and it would be our ancestor as well.
It's weird, too, that it's usually the common ancestor that has to be "monkey-like," rather than a "monkey." Once the divergence is made, well, then they're usually going to be "monkeys." Why? OK, partly it's the old problem in evolution of where do you draw the line. I'm just saying that drawing it at the common ancestor is especially arbitrary in terms of nomenclature, and gives an incorrect view of evolution because evolution doesn't happen at just the splits. And still most people blithely go on calling ancient non-nucleated (non-archaeal) cells "bacteria" back to, generally, the split between archaea and bacteria. Why is a cyanobacterium from 3 billion years ago called by the same broad term as a cyanobacterium today? Because it's meaningful in terms of cladistics, and normal for how humans classify things according to sets of traits. Cyanobacteria are of the clade "bacteria" and they photosynthesize, and if they've evolved a good deal, they're (probably) not unrecognizably different from their ancestors. Or must we say that today's cyanobacteria evolved from "cyanobacterium-like ancestors"? Plus, where would we draw the line? Were they "cyanobacteria" 10,000 years ago, a million-years ago, a billion years ago, or were they just "cyanobacterium-like"? Maybe they were "cyanobacterium-like" a million years ago, and two million years ago they were "cyanobacterium-like-like." Logically, it gets bizarre once you give up terms that cover large periods of time. Sure, there are still questions of when "bacteria" should be called "bacteria," as in, should we call the common ancestor of archaea and bacteria one or the other, or something else entirely? I suspect it would be the latter, but conceivably it could be argued otherwise, especially if we knew what the common ancestor was like. But that's trivial beside the unanswerable questions of when we should stop labeling a certain lineage as "ape" and instead call it "ape-like," and then what do we call the even earlier forms that are still rather "apish"? Glen Davidson

mattdance18 · 18 December 2014

harold said: Well, it's a relief to know that cockroaches have only been plaguing the Earth since the Cretaceous, or at worst, late Jurassic period. Unfortunately that does still make them a persistently successful phenotype that has survived major extinction events.
Indeed it does! But of course, the same thing can be said about numerous other phenotypes, whose members are as abundant and/or diverse, if not more. The earliest birds (e.g. archaeopteryx) are Jurassic, and they diversified effectively in the Cretaceous. Like cockroaches, they made it across the KT boundary. There are about 10,000 species of bird now -- and fewer than 5,000 of cockroach. So we could say that the avian phenotype is persistently successful and has survived major extinction events. Why, then, do we use cockroaches as a preferred example of hardiness through the ages? We could ask the same question with relation to the mammalian phenotype, since mammals are at least as old as birds. And though they are much less speciose than birds, mammals too are presently more diverse than cockroaches. With regard to several other insect orders, things are even more lopsided. Consider the four so-called "megadiverse" orders: Coleoptera (beetles), Hymenoptera (wasps, ants, bees), Diptera ("true" flies), and Lepidoptera (butterflies and moths). Lepidoptera are the youngsters of the bunch, with late Jurassic origins and Cretaceous diversification; they have continued to diversify spectacularly, to well over 150,000 contemporary species. Diptera and Hymenoptera are early Jurassic in their beginnings and were already very diverse by the end of that era; each has over 100,000 species. And the beetles are truly a lesson in hardiness: several modern groups were already going strong in the Triassic, and they now maintain far more than 300,000 contemporary species. All five groups made it across the KT boundary. Clearly, the Lepidopteran, Dipteran, Hymenopteran, and especially the Coleopteran phenotypes are persistently successful and able to survive mass extinction events. And then there are the "true bugs" of order Hemiptera. "Only" about 60- or 70,000 species today -- but the earliest members of the group, clearly defined by their highly specialized pierce-and-suck mouthparts go all the way back to the Permian. They didn't just make it across the KT boundary: they survived the granddaddy of all mass extinctions, the end-Permian event. So why do we take cockroaches, with late Jurassic origins and a mere 4,600 or so contemporary species (not counting the termites), as exemplars of evolutionary longevity and toughness? I think it has a lot to do with misrepresentations of cockroaches as being far older than they actually are.

Just Bob · 18 December 2014

I think the sense of the cockroach meme is a philosophical taking-down of the 'humans rule the world' idea, with an ick factor kicker: "Cockroaches have been here since forever and survived stuff that could kill off the dinosaurs. We've only been here since yesterday. Who do you think will be here after our global thermonuclear war/asteroid strike/biowarfare total genocide?"

Reed A. Cartwright · 18 December 2014

Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.

Palaeonictis · 18 December 2014

Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.

AltairIV · 18 December 2014

Just Bob said: I think the sense of the cockroach meme is a philosophical taking-down of the 'humans rule the world' idea, with an ick factor kicker: "Cockroaches have been here since forever and survived stuff that could kill off the dinosaurs. We've only been here since yesterday. Who do you think will be here after our global thermonuclear war/asteroid strike/biowarfare total genocide?"
I think it's also due to the fact that, unlike birds and beetles, we have generally experienced roaches as being very persistent pests, difficult to impossible to completely eliminate from modern dwellings despite our best efforts. So we have projected that trait onto their overall ability to survive catastrophe as well. Notice how we also view rats as "ultimate survivors" in a similar way.

Robert Byers · 18 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.

Palaeonictis · 18 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method.
READ THE ARTICLE.

Scott F · 18 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
I see that Robert is making a couple of common mistakes - the same mistakes pointed out in the main article. He is assuming that "primitive" is equivalent to or implies "inferior", and that "evolved" means "superior". From this mistaken assumption, he draws a mistaken conclusion. Interestingly, he does get one thing correct. Egg laying, marsupial pouches, and mammalian placentas are all just different forms of giving birth. The first mistake he makes is that he believes that since scientists have concluded that placental mammals evolved from egg laying animals, that scientists therefore draw the moral conclusion that the placenta is "more evolved" and "superior" to the egg. In fact, scientists would draw no such moral or qualitative conclusions. Surprisingly, Robert wants to chastise "evolutionists" for holding that position (which they do not hold), even though he believes that he is, in fact, "superior" to all other animals. Can you spell, "projection"? His second mistake is assuming that scientists are saying that placental mammals evolved from today's egg laying animals. He believes that scientists conclude that egg laying is a "leftover". In fact, the modern egg, modern pouch, and placenta are all equally "evolved", and are all equally suited to the job for which they have evolved. Sure, scientists say that placental mammals of today are evolved from egg laying animals of the past. BUT, scientists also say that egg laying animals of today have also evolved from egg laying animals of the past. Robert completely misses that point. He doesn't hear it, because it doesn't fit is misconceptions about science and scientists. That's the major problem that I have with Creationists, and Fundamentalists in general. As far as I'm concerned, they can believe whatever they want. The problem is that the only (or at least the primary) way they seem to want to "justify" their own beliefs is to misrepresent (i.e. to lie about) what scientists actually say. It's the constant lying that gripes me, from those who see themselves as morally superior to those whom they are lying about.

TomS · 19 December 2014

Scott F said: That's the major problem that I have with Creationists, and Fundamentalists in general. As far as I'm concerned, they can believe whatever they want. The problem is that the only (or at least the primary) way they seem to want to "justify" their own beliefs is to misrepresent (i.e. to lie about) what scientists actually say. It's the constant lying that gripes me, from those who see themselves as morally superior to those whom they are lying about.
But it is not confined to misrepresenting the position that they are attacking. It is also misrepresenting the people, who they are (the so-called "Social Darwinists", for example) their motives and their evidence; what can be known ("observational science" vs. "historical science" and "how can you know? where you there?"); what they themselves are claiming (they do not actually present an alternative while claiming that there is a best alternative to science on the topic). They do not even shy away from from misrepresenting their supposedly inviolable holy text (claiming that the Bible makes a clear statement on a topic anachronistic to the Ancient Near East and trying to explain away what they don't want the Bible to say). Whether it is (conscious or not) lying, or only incompetence, or the Dunning Kruger Effect, or fear, or who knows what, it is so patent as to be laughable if it were not taken seriously.

Palaeonictis · 19 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.

Just Bob · 19 December 2014

Palaeonictis said: You are making the same mistakes...
I think you're kind of new to this game. Your arguments and logic and facts in general will make an impression on Robert Byers when you can lower sea level by bailing with a teaspoon.

mattdance18 · 19 December 2014

Robert Byers said: ...
Robert, I'm going to respond to these posts on the Bathroom Wall. I realize that you view the Wall with disdain and feel that it is unjust for people not to respond to you on the main articles. But you are nearly always off the specific topics. And that's the case here: this thread is simply not about creationism. It's about the fallacy of "more evolved" and "less evolved." So trying to argue about evolutionists' alleged mistakes from a creationist perspective is just not relevant to this thread. This is why you are always accused of trolling: rather than staying on topic, you try to steer each thread toward the creation vs. evolution issue. If you are interested in what I have to say, please respond there. Matt

RWard · 19 December 2014

Just Bob, if Paleonictus thinks he has a chance of educating Robert Byers he's sadly mistaken. BUT his efforts are not necessarily in vain. There are those lurking on Panda that may indeed profit from his response to Mr. Byers' foolishness.

That's the value of R. Byers, FL, and their ilk. Their nonsense provides an opportunity to respond to creationist arguments. Besides, they make their own side sound ridiculous. Don't bannish them to the Wall, honor them...

Robert Byers · 20 December 2014

Scott F said:
Robert Byers said: Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
I see that Robert is making a couple of common mistakes - the same mistakes pointed out in the main article. He is assuming that "primitive" is equivalent to or implies "inferior", and that "evolved" means "superior". From this mistaken assumption, he draws a mistaken conclusion. Interestingly, he does get one thing correct. Egg laying, marsupial pouches, and mammalian placentas are all just different forms of giving birth. The first mistake he makes is that he believes that since scientists have concluded that placental mammals evolved from egg laying animals, that scientists therefore draw the moral conclusion that the placenta is "more evolved" and "superior" to the egg. In fact, scientists would draw no such moral or qualitative conclusions. Surprisingly, Robert wants to chastise "evolutionists" for holding that position (which they do not hold), even though he believes that he is, in fact, "superior" to all other animals. Can you spell, "projection"? His second mistake is assuming that scientists are saying that placental mammals evolved from today's egg laying animals. He believes that scientists conclude that egg laying is a "leftover". In fact, the modern egg, modern pouch, and placenta are all equally "evolved", and are all equally suited to the job for which they have evolved. Sure, scientists say that placental mammals of today are evolved from egg laying animals of the past. BUT, scientists also say that egg laying animals of today have also evolved from egg laying animals of the past. Robert completely misses that point. He doesn't hear it, because it doesn't fit is misconceptions about science and scientists. That's the major problem that I have with Creationists, and Fundamentalists in general. As far as I'm concerned, they can believe whatever they want. The problem is that the only (or at least the primary) way they seem to want to "justify" their own beliefs is to misrepresent (i.e. to lie about) what scientists actually say. It's the constant lying that gripes me, from those who see themselves as morally superior to those whom they are lying about.
The history of this is not what it is today. Possibly Darwin didn't think egg laying.marsupialism was a primitive stage in evolving biology however most of evolutionists did think so. They did teach these birthing types came first before placental type and it was innately more primitive or less complicated then placental. Because of my interest in marsupialism I noted it was later researchers that had to stress marsupialism was not more primitive then placentalism. They did teach fish became reptiles became mammals with a increasing complexity in body and so birthing. so montremes/marsupials were seen as leftovers who failed to evolve. so also more primitive. They would not of said montremes evolved hand in hand with placentals to the present results. they would of said montremes stopped evolving and were done. If they changed their minds then its news.

Robert Byers · 20 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.
Until recent they teached marsupials etc were more primive in birthing . Rese4archers in marsupials had to correct this idea and after research. a great presumption was things evolved up. They do see humans as superior to the fish/reptiles/dumb primates they say we evolved from. Sure they do. If things changed well thats a change.

Palaeonictis · 20 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.
Until recent they teached marsupials etc were more primive in birthing . Rese4archers in marsupials had to correct this idea and after research. a great presumption was things evolved up. They do see humans as superior to the fish/reptiles/dumb primates they say we evolved from. Sure they do. If things changed well thats a change.
That is arguably one of the dumbest things I have *ever* heard from a creationist, and yes, marsupials do have a more primitive birthing system in that it constrains them from being as diverse as placental mammals have become. Does that mean that placental mammals are more evolved? No, it does not. Each lineage has had an equal amount of time to evolve, (as outlined in the article, which I presume you haven't read). No, scientists do not argue that humans are superior to other organisms, for example humans are quite anatomically primitive in some respects, such as unlike horses, who have continuously growing molars, humans don't have continuously growing teeth. Humans are anatomically primitive, in that unlike platypi, and some shrews, we aren't venomous, etc. You are also assuming that there is an "evolutionary ladder", which there is not, as I (and the author of this entry) have explained. Anyways, this is my last response to creationist trolls like you here, I will be glad to debate this so-called issue on the Bathroom Wall.

Robert Byers · 20 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.
Until recent they teached marsupials etc were more primive in birthing . Rese4archers in marsupials had to correct this idea and after research. a great presumption was things evolved up. They do see humans as superior to the fish/reptiles/dumb primates they say we evolved from. Sure they do. If things changed well thats a change.
That is arguably one of the dumbest things I have *ever* heard from a creationist, and yes, marsupials do have a more primitive birthing system in that it constrains them from being as diverse as placental mammals have become. Does that mean that placental mammals are more evolved? No, it does not. Each lineage has had an equal amount of time to evolve, (as outlined in the article, which I presume you haven't read). No, scientists do not argue that humans are superior to other organisms, for example humans are quite anatomically primitive in some respects, such as unlike horses, who have continuously growing molars, humans don't have continuously growing teeth. Humans are anatomically primitive, in that unlike platypi, and some shrews, we aren't venomous, etc. You are also assuming that there is an "evolutionary ladder", which there is not, as I (and the author of this entry) have explained. Anyways, this is my last response to creationist trolls like you here, I will be glad to debate this so-called issue on the Bathroom Wall.
Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.

phhht · 20 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.
Until recent they teached marsupials etc were more primive in birthing . Rese4archers in marsupials had to correct this idea and after research. a great presumption was things evolved up. They do see humans as superior to the fish/reptiles/dumb primates they say we evolved from. Sure they do. If things changed well thats a change.
That is arguably one of the dumbest things I have *ever* heard from a creationist, and yes, marsupials do have a more primitive birthing system in that it constrains them from being as diverse as placental mammals have become. Does that mean that placental mammals are more evolved? No, it does not. Each lineage has had an equal amount of time to evolve, (as outlined in the article, which I presume you haven't read). No, scientists do not argue that humans are superior to other organisms, for example humans are quite anatomically primitive in some respects, such as unlike horses, who have continuously growing molars, humans don't have continuously growing teeth. Humans are anatomically primitive, in that unlike platypi, and some shrews, we aren't venomous, etc. You are also assuming that there is an "evolutionary ladder", which there is not, as I (and the author of this entry) have explained. Anyways, this is my last response to creationist trolls like you here, I will be glad to debate this so-called issue on the Bathroom Wall.
Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Gods you're dumb, Byers. You're breathtakingly, astoundingly, unbelievably dumb.

DS · 20 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Well here you go Robert: Meredith, R. W. et al. 2011. Impacts of the Cretaceious terrestrial revolution and KPg extinction on mammal diversification. Science 334:521-524 This paper shows conclusively that marsupials are basal within the Mammalia. So your ark fantasy is disproven and your "speculation" os exposed as the ignorant nonsense that it is. All you have is a faulty line of reasoning and all of the evidence is against you, as usual. If you are so smart booby boy, tell us which of the primate phylogenies shown above is correct. Bet you can't do it. Failure to respond will be taken as evidence of your ignorance, as always.

Yardbird · 20 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?

Yardbird · 20 December 2014

DS said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Well here you go Robert: Meredith, R. W. et al. 2011. Impacts of the Cretaceious terrestrial revolution and KPg extinction on mammal diversification. Science 334:521-524 This paper shows conclusively that marsupials are basal within the Mammalia. So your ark fantasy is disproven and your "speculation" os exposed as the ignorant nonsense that it is. All you have is a faulty line of reasoning and all of the evidence is against you, as usual. If you are so smart booby boy, tell us which of the primate phylogenies shown above is correct. Bet you can't do it. Failure to respond will be taken as evidence of your ignorance, as always.
Forget biology. He can't handle simple geography. Not surprising, since he can't find his ass with a hand full of fish hooks.

Yardbird · 20 December 2014

Yardbird said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?
Let me amend that question, Why aren't there only marsupials in Patagonia?

gdavidson418 · 20 December 2014

Yardbird said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?
Well, it's a good point, except for Lestodelphys halli, the Patagonian Opossum. I mean it really is a good point that kangaroos aren't in Patagonia, for instance, but South America is the place where you'll find the most marsupial species outside of Australia. Pretty clear why--Australia, Antarctica, and South America were all joined at one time, then North and South America hooked up, and most of the marsupials went extinct (with mainly rather small marsupials surviving in S. America), while opossums went north. Can't forget the facts, whatever a dullard Bobby is. DS's comment calls to my mind the old idea that it's better to shut up and be thought a fool rather than to open your mouth and remove all doubt. Only I don't think there's been any doubt about Booby for many years. Glen Davidson

Yardbird · 20 December 2014

gdavidson418 said:
Yardbird said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?
Well, it's a good point, except for Lestodelphys halli, the Patagonian Opossum. I mean it really is a good point that kangaroos aren't in Patagonia, for instance, but South America is the place where you'll find the most marsupial species outside of Australia. Pretty clear why--Australia, Antarctica, and South America were all joined at one time, then North and South America hooked up, and most of the marsupials went extinct (with mainly rather small marsupials surviving in S. America), while opossums went north. Can't forget the facts, whatever a dullard Bobby is. DS's comment calls to my mind the old idea that it's better to shut up and be thought a fool rather than to open your mouth and remove all doubt. Only I don't think there's been any doubt about Booby for many years. Glen Davidson
True, see my amendment above. Most of the land animals in Patagonia are placental mammals which do not fit with his dispersion theory.

John Harshman · 21 December 2014

DS said: This paper shows conclusively that marsupials are basal within the Mammalia.
Oopsie. Have you completely forgotten the original post?

DS · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
DS said: This paper shows conclusively that marsupials are basal within the Mammalia.
Oopsie. Have you completely forgotten the original post?
No I haven't. However, the term basal is correct. It falsifies the claim made by Robert that marsupials just popped into existence because they needed to for some reason. They did not evolve after the flood from placental mammals. The branching order was monotremes, marsupials, then placentals, with the marsupial lineage branching long before the diversification of the placentals. The marsupials may not be "primitive" in any meaningful sense, but they definitely are basal in the phylogeny. Placentals may not have evolved from modern marsupials, but they did evolve from a common ancestor with marsupials branching first. As I have stated before, the terms basal and derived are valid descriptors of phylogenetic relationships. The fact that they are often misused and abused concepts does not negate this fact. I know that Emily doesn't like the terms, but it is better than the terms "primitive" and "advanced". If you think that I have used the term inappropriately, or you disagree with the use of the term at all, just let me know why. I am sure that you have much more experience in this field than I do.

DS · 21 December 2014

The paper cited above does indicate that there are times when it is appropriate to use the term "basal". This term does have a definite meaning. However, it also states that it would be more appropriate to describe the relationship as a sister group. So in this case it would be more correct to say that marsupials are the proper sister group to the placentals. That description has the added advantage of also falsifying the hypothesis that modern placentals evolved from modern marsupials, or that they magically poofed into existence after the flood for some reason. Either way, bobby is just plain wrong again.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Robert Byers said:
Palaeonictis said:
Reed A. Cartwright said:
Emily Thompson said: The fallacy is when people look at traits of modern-day species and make deductions about the evolution of human traits. For example, since humans are more closely related to chimpanzees than platypuses, someone might think that in the course of human evolution we went from laying eggs (like platypuses) to giving live birth (like chimpanzees). While this isn't necessarily incorrect, the reasoning behind it is wrong. It comes back to the misconception that humans are more highly evolved and other modern organisms are primitive. Hopefully that clears things up a little.
Another example of the platypus fallacy is deciding that early mammals must have had rostrums because platypus, which "represent primitive mammals" have rostrums. But platypuses don't actually represent primitive mammals. Some of their features are primitive, others are derived; but this is also true of humans (e.g. we don't have rostrums.) Similarly, if we only had data from mammals, identifying egg laying as primitive would be a platypus fallacy. But because we have outgroups that also lay eggs and fossil evidence, we can confidently say that primitive mammals laid eggs.
Although not all primitive mammals laid eggs, such as the multituberculates. Evidence (i.e. pelvic remains) suggest that they tended to reproduce like that of the modern-day marsupial, giving birth to embryonic-stage young which climb their way to a teat or nipple.* * Only 50% of extant marsupials have a pouch.
Some snakes birth live and some birth eggs. Is one superior to another? There is no evidence one metrhod is superior. Its just another method. The old evolutionists, simply, presumed egg laying or marsupials were primitive relative to other mammals. It made sense to their evolutionary story. Its not true. Matsupialism is simply a faster way to increase production. Thats the point. Egg laying mammals are not a leftover from universal egg laying mammaldom. Its just wrong speculation that seemed like it should be true.
You are making the same mistakes as outlined in the article, maybe you should go back and read it. No person with actually any knowledge about evolutionary biology would assume that marsupials (not "matsupials") and monotremes are primitive in comparison to placentals, none whatsoever. Instead, in the case of monotremes the reason why they may have retained several primitive features (although they also have derived features) is because it has been a successful design (no, not ID) for the past 100 million years of monotreme evolution. For the snakes, again, no one assumes that snakes that are viviparous are superior to snakes that are oviparous, no one. That's right, monotremes aren't "left-overs from a universal egg-laying mammaldom", because they're species that probably have only been in existence since the Pliocene epoch.
Until recent they teached marsupials etc were more primive in birthing . Rese4archers in marsupials had to correct this idea and after research. a great presumption was things evolved up. They do see humans as superior to the fish/reptiles/dumb primates they say we evolved from. Sure they do. If things changed well thats a change.
That is arguably one of the dumbest things I have *ever* heard from a creationist, and yes, marsupials do have a more primitive birthing system in that it constrains them from being as diverse as placental mammals have become. Does that mean that placental mammals are more evolved? No, it does not. Each lineage has had an equal amount of time to evolve, (as outlined in the article, which I presume you haven't read). No, scientists do not argue that humans are superior to other organisms, for example humans are quite anatomically primitive in some respects, such as unlike horses, who have continuously growing molars, humans don't have continuously growing teeth. Humans are anatomically primitive, in that unlike platypi, and some shrews, we aren't venomous, etc. You are also assuming that there is an "evolutionary ladder", which there is not, as I (and the author of this entry) have explained. Anyways, this is my last response to creationist trolls like you here, I will be glad to debate this so-called issue on the Bathroom Wall.
Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
No, marsupials aren't placentals with pouches. There are a number of genetic and morphological differences between the two outside of reproduction, such as the existence of epipubic bones in marsupials to support the pouch, while placentals do not. For the Ark "idea", you just got an F. I'm not saying that "marsupials are more primitive because of their reproductive system", while yes, in comparison with placentals they're primitive. In Australia, marsupial species are rapidly declining due to competition with cats, foxes, rabbits, horses, camels etc. as well as the onslaught brought upon them by cats and foxes, which just goes to show that placentals are more diverse than them, and for some reason can easily overtake them (=marsupials). Let's get back to the "marsupials are placentals with pouches" idea. Fossil evidence suggests that marsupials (and stem-marsupials, or metatherians) diverged from placentals (and stem-placentals, or eutherians) at a minimum of 125 Ma. Placentals have a number of specializations that marsupials just don't have, such as a longer gestation period, no epipubic bones, etc. And not all marsupials have pouches, only 50% of them have pouches. Additionally, you can't just oversimplify placentals, they are a very diverse group with around 5000 species, most of them rodents and bats, the rest are comprised of carnivores, proboscids, primates (including humans), perissodactyls, artiodactyls, cetaceans, insectivores (which is rather a grade), hyracoids, sirenians, xenarthrans, dermopterans, scandentians, lagomorphs, pholidotans, etc. etc. etc. Marsupials and monotremes only have 305 species, and the fossil record shows that wherever a placental is, the marsupial goes extinct, and we are seeing it right now occur in Australia, so to say that "marsupials are placentals with pouches" is inaccurate.

John Harshman · 21 December 2014

DS said: The paper cited above does indicate that there are times when it is appropriate to use the term "basal". This term does have a definite meaning. However, it also states that it would be more appropriate to describe the relationship as a sister group. So in this case it would be more correct to say that marsupials are the proper sister group to the placentals. That description has the added advantage of also falsifying the hypothesis that modern placentals evolved from modern marsupials, or that they magically poofed into existence after the flood for some reason. Either way, bobby is just plain wrong again.
Thanks for making that correction. Your previous comment actually did suggest that you hadn't read the original post. "Basal", in reference to taxa, is an arbitrary term that relies on a judgment about what is the "main stem" of the tree or on artifacts of taxon sampling. You perpetrated both of these. "Basal" is almost never appropriate to use for taxa, never for extant taxa, and never in reference to marsupials.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
DS said: The paper cited above does indicate that there are times when it is appropriate to use the term "basal". This term does have a definite meaning. However, it also states that it would be more appropriate to describe the relationship as a sister group. So in this case it would be more correct to say that marsupials are the proper sister group to the placentals. That description has the added advantage of also falsifying the hypothesis that modern placentals evolved from modern marsupials, or that they magically poofed into existence after the flood for some reason. Either way, bobby is just plain wrong again.
Thanks for making that correction. Your previous comment actually did suggest that you hadn't read the original post. "Basal", in reference to taxa, is an arbitrary term that relies on a judgment about what is the "main stem" of the tree or on artifacts of taxon sampling. You perpetrated both of these. "Basal" is almost never appropriate to use for taxa, never for extant taxa, and never in reference to marsupials.
For example, cimolestans are basal eutherians, or miacoids are basal carnivores, members of the clade Carnivoramorpha.

DS · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
DS said: The paper cited above does indicate that there are times when it is appropriate to use the term "basal". This term does have a definite meaning. However, it also states that it would be more appropriate to describe the relationship as a sister group. So in this case it would be more correct to say that marsupials are the proper sister group to the placentals. That description has the added advantage of also falsifying the hypothesis that modern placentals evolved from modern marsupials, or that they magically poofed into existence after the flood for some reason. Either way, bobby is just plain wrong again.
Thanks for making that correction. Your previous comment actually did suggest that you hadn't read the original post. "Basal", in reference to taxa, is an arbitrary term that relies on a judgment about what is the "main stem" of the tree or on artifacts of taxon sampling. You perpetrated both of these. "Basal" is almost never appropriate to use for taxa, never for extant taxa, and never in reference to marsupials.
From the paper cited: "Nodes or branchings near the base are basal nodes or basal branchings. The ‘basal branch’ is the branch between the most basal node (the last common ancestor of the members of the study group) and the root (Kitching et al., 1998: 200). A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa. A ‘basal taxon’ is a (hypothe- tical) ancestral species, a species of the stem line, not a terminal taxon. All other use of the notation ‘basal’ is incorrect and misleading." Systematic Entomology (2004) 29, 279–281 I was using the term in reference to the ancestral marsupials that diverged from the lineage leading to modern placentals, since they diverged before the divergence of any of the modern placental lineages. If this is not the correct usage, I stand corrected. In any event, the term sister taxa is certainly accurate and less confusing when applied to marsupials and placental mammals.

mattdance18 · 21 December 2014

Byers' creationist take on marsupials. Enjoy.

http://www.nwcreation.net/articles/marsupial_migration.html

(Feel free to answer my longstanding questions about your "speculation" any time, Robert.)

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

DS said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: The paper cited above does indicate that there are times when it is appropriate to use the term "basal". This term does have a definite meaning. However, it also states that it would be more appropriate to describe the relationship as a sister group. So in this case it would be more correct to say that marsupials are the proper sister group to the placentals. That description has the added advantage of also falsifying the hypothesis that modern placentals evolved from modern marsupials, or that they magically poofed into existence after the flood for some reason. Either way, bobby is just plain wrong again.
Thanks for making that correction. Your previous comment actually did suggest that you hadn't read the original post. "Basal", in reference to taxa, is an arbitrary term that relies on a judgment about what is the "main stem" of the tree or on artifacts of taxon sampling. You perpetrated both of these. "Basal" is almost never appropriate to use for taxa, never for extant taxa, and never in reference to marsupials.
From the paper cited: "Nodes or branchings near the base are basal nodes or basal branchings. The ‘basal branch’ is the branch between the most basal node (the last common ancestor of the members of the study group) and the root (Kitching et al., 1998: 200). A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa. A ‘basal taxon’ is a (hypothe- tical) ancestral species, a species of the stem line, not a terminal taxon. All other use of the notation ‘basal’ is incorrect and misleading." Systematic Entomology (2004) 29, 279–281 I was using the term in reference to the ancestral marsupials that diverged from the lineage leading to modern placentals, since they diverged before the divergence of any of the modern placental lineages. If this is not the correct usage, I stand corrected. In any event, the term sister taxa is certainly accurate and less confusing when applied to marsupials and placental mammals.
The "ancestral marsupials" aren't marsupials, they're stem-metatherians. So no, this usage isn't correct simply because the "ancestral marsupials" to which you refer aren't marsupials, at all. Marsupials only seem to go back to the Late Cretaceous (according to fossil evidence, I don't know to where the molecular evidence points to), while placentals, according to the molecular clock, go back 100 Ma. Now, if you were to refer solely to fossil evidence, placentals originated during the Paleocene, the two are contradictory. So at this point, your claim that marsupials are basal mammals has no merit.

mattdance18 · 21 December 2014

The irony, of course, is that Byers himself assumes that when a reproductive system is termed "primitive," this means something evaluative, and negatively so, rather than just descriptive -- thereby illustrating exactly the sort of misconception this post is supposed to dispel.

But then I wouldn't expect someone whose writing exhibits such a shaky grasp of basic grammar to exhibit a firmer grasp of ideas and reasoning.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

mattdance18 said: The irony, of course, is that Byers himself assumes that when a reproductive system is termed "primitive," this means something evaluative, and negatively so, rather than just descriptive -- thereby illustrating exactly the sort of misconception this post is supposed to dispel. But then I wouldn't expect someone whose writing exhibits such a shaky grasp of basic grammar to exhibit a firmer grasp of ideas and reasoning.
He also demonstrates a lack of knowledge regarding even basic biology, as shown by his replies to everyone, including me, that demonstrate that his brain fails to register the rebuttals we give to his crap, and so loudly goes on, shouting, "LA! LA! LA! I CAN'T HEAR YOU! while spouting out what I like to call "Biblical Bullshit". It's like he has Creation Derangement Syndrome.

John Harshman · 21 December 2014

DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

Creationist interpretation of human evolution:

Since Man exists, monkeys must not exist according to evilutionists.

Scott F · 21 December 2014

Palaeonictis said: Creationist interpretation of human evolution: Since Man exists, monkeys must not exist according to evilutionists.
You say that, almost in jest. Yet it's just a version of the classic argument that Creationists constantly use: "If man evolved from monkeys, why are there still monkeys?" They appear to think it is withering "gotcha" argument.

DS · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Well I didn't say that, I was just quoting the paper. But I guess there really is no meaningful way that marsupials can be said to be basal to placentals mammals. They are still a sister group and Byers is still wrong.

Scott F · 21 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu [sic] say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials.
Well, there you go. Absolutely no one is saying that. Except you. In fact, the original post is saying the exact opposite. You have succinctly demonstrated the exact fallacy that the OP is arguing against. Robert, you really do need to try to read for comprehension.
Thats [sic] just a line of reasoning.
Hold onto that for just a moment.
The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically?
Again, no one is saying it is "more primitive". Except you.
In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth.
Okay. Now remember just 4 "sentences" ago you dismissed what you thought scientists were saying, because it is "just a line of reasoning"? (This being your favorite euphemism for, "something I don't understand, so I'm going to dismiss it without giving it any thought.") But now, you "speculate" about how you think "marsupialism" came about. No evidence, no study, no knowledge, no idea what you're talking about. Just your personal speculation. Meaning, in other words, that you just made it up out of whole cloth. Well, there you go. We can just as easily dismiss your "speculation". It doesn't even rise to the level of a "line of reasoning".
The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry.
Really? In your learned opinion, that's the "whole point" of this method of reproduction? North American Opossums wean their young in about 2.5 months. Mice and rats (both placental mammals) wean their young in about 20 days. Which one is faster?

John Harshman · 21 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.

Palaeonictis · 21 December 2014

Scott F said:
Palaeonictis said: Creationist interpretation of human evolution: Since Man exists, monkeys must not exist according to evilutionists.
You say that, almost in jest. Yet it's just a version of the classic argument that Creationists constantly use: "If man evolved from monkeys, why are there still monkeys?" They appear to think it is withering "gotcha" argument.
Just like they think that Darwin was racist, which he was not (well, by 19th century standards).

Robert Byers · 22 December 2014

Yardbird said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials. Thats just a line of reasoning. The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically? In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth. The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry. marsupialism by the way is unrelated to divisions in nature. Marsupials were just placentals with pouches.
Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?
its all off thread, and I get blamed, but you make my case. they were there and only later did the others join.

Robert Byers · 22 December 2014

mattdance18 said: The irony, of course, is that Byers himself assumes that when a reproductive system is termed "primitive," this means something evaluative, and negatively so, rather than just descriptive -- thereby illustrating exactly the sort of misconception this post is supposed to dispel. But then I wouldn't expect someone whose writing exhibits such a shaky grasp of basic grammar to exhibit a firmer grasp of ideas and reasoning.
Primitive means primitive relative to something else. in no accurate way is marsupialism primitive/inferior to placentalism. if so prove it! Show the science!

Robert Byers · 22 December 2014

Scott F said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu [sic] say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials.
Well, there you go. Absolutely no one is saying that. Except you. In fact, the original post is saying the exact opposite. You have succinctly demonstrated the exact fallacy that the OP is arguing against. Robert, you really do need to try to read for comprehension.
Thats [sic] just a line of reasoning.
Hold onto that for just a moment.
The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically?
Again, no one is saying it is "more primitive". Except you.
In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth.
Okay. Now remember just 4 "sentences" ago you dismissed what you thought scientists were saying, because it is "just a line of reasoning"? (This being your favorite euphemism for, "something I don't understand, so I'm going to dismiss it without giving it any thought.") But now, you "speculate" about how you think "marsupialism" came about. No evidence, no study, no knowledge, no idea what you're talking about. Just your personal speculation. Meaning, in other words, that you just made it up out of whole cloth. Well, there you go. We can just as easily dismiss your "speculation". It doesn't even rise to the level of a "line of reasoning".
The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry.
Really? In your learned opinion, that's the "whole point" of this method of reproduction? North American Opossums wean their young in about 2.5 months. Mice and rats (both placental mammals) wean their young in about 20 days. Which one is faster?
Mice are plenty fast and don't help. However the others did. thats what, I speculate, marsupialism was meant to do rto refill the earth with limited timelines. I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't. thats a myth recently overcome in the last decades. They just presumed it was more primitive or rather closer to a reptile early stage. anyways evolutionists did teach placental was a later evolved change from the original ways. speculation , by definition, is not saying its the result of scientific methodology. Nothing wrong with lines of reasoning if its owned up to.

phhht · 22 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Scott F said:
Robert Byers said: Well there you go. yoiu [sic] say marsupialism is a more primitive birthing method because of fewer marsupials.
Well, there you go. Absolutely no one is saying that. Except you. In fact, the original post is saying the exact opposite. You have succinctly demonstrated the exact fallacy that the OP is arguing against. Robert, you really do need to try to read for comprehension.
Thats [sic] just a line of reasoning.
Hold onto that for just a moment.
The diversity of types is not for/against birthing methods being better or worse. Marsupialism is not more primitive in any way. Show why it is scientifically?
Again, no one is saying it is "more primitive". Except you.
In fact, i speculate, it came in order to increase production for creatures having the farthest to go from the ark but with a timeline to refill the earth.
Okay. Now remember just 4 "sentences" ago you dismissed what you thought scientists were saying, because it is "just a line of reasoning"? (This being your favorite euphemism for, "something I don't understand, so I'm going to dismiss it without giving it any thought.") But now, you "speculate" about how you think "marsupialism" came about. No evidence, no study, no knowledge, no idea what you're talking about. Just your personal speculation. Meaning, in other words, that you just made it up out of whole cloth. Well, there you go. We can just as easily dismiss your "speculation". It doesn't even rise to the level of a "line of reasoning".
The whole point of the marsupial is that it gets the fetus out in order to start another one. Hurry hurry.
Really? In your learned opinion, that's the "whole point" of this method of reproduction? North American Opossums wean their young in about 2.5 months. Mice and rats (both placental mammals) wean their young in about 20 days. Which one is faster?
Mice are plenty fast and don't help...
Gods you're dumb, Byers.

mattdance18 · 22 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
mattdance18 said: The irony, of course, is that Byers himself assumes that when a reproductive system is termed "primitive," this means something evaluative, and negatively so, rather than just descriptive -- thereby illustrating exactly the sort of misconception this post is supposed to dispel. But then I wouldn't expect someone whose writing exhibits such a shaky grasp of basic grammar to exhibit a firmer grasp of ideas and reasoning.
Primitive means primitive relative to something else. in no accurate way is marsupialism primitive/inferior to placentalism. if so prove it! Show the science!
I'm going to make this very simple for you, Robert: calling something "primitive" does not mean calling it "inferior." You are the one conflating the two. Evolutionary theory makes no such equivalence. And the original post was directed against precisely that sort of misunderstanding of what evolutionary theory actually means. This is not about "showing the science." It's about you not understanding what you read.

mattdance18 · 22 December 2014

Mice are plenty fast and don't help. However the others did. thats what, I speculate, marsupialism was meant to do rto refill the earth with limited timelines.
That doesn't make any sense at all. How would giving marsupials a comparatively slower reproductive system help to ensure that the world gets repopulated more quickly?!? There are ecological contexts in which a marsupial reproductive system can provide advantages. But even in those contexts, the advantages don't include speed relative to placentals.
I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't.
Because it is more primitive. But this doesn't mean that it's necessarily inferior. You need to stop making this conflation. That said, there are also ecological contexts in which a marsupial reproductive system is disadvantageous. And one component of those contexts appears to be heavy competition with placentals.
They just presumed it was more primitive or rather closer to a reptile early stage.
No, they inferred that it's "closer," in time, to the earlier stage of egg-laying, because it's what the evidence indicates.
anyways evolutionists did teach placental was a later evolved change from the original ways.
Because it is. This too is shown by the evidence. It's not a presumption. It's an inference. I fail to see what's so difficult about any of this.

John Harshman · 22 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.

John Harshman · 22 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't.
Because it is more primitive.
Byers aside, I would be interested in evidence that this is true. What do you have?

Yardbird · 22 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
Yardbird said: Absent technology or supernatural intervention, (show the reference in the Bible if you want to claim either) the most efficient way to spread land animals is through contiguous land masses. Assuming that animals spread from Mt. Ararat, they would have moved across Asia, down the west coast of North America, across Central America, and down the west coast of South America. Following this route, the tip of South America is the furthest land distance from Mt. Ararat. It's just under 30,000 kilometers. That's far shorter than the distance from Mt. Ararat to Tasmania, which is just over 17,000 kilometers following land masses. Why are there no marsupials in Patagonia?
its all off thread, and I get blamed, but you make my case. they were there and only later did the others join.
Robert, you are a truly astounding thinker. How can anything stand against the onslaught of your logic? Cry mercy. I yield. Spare me.

mattdance18 · 22 December 2014

John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said:
I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't.
Because it is more primitive.
Byers aside, I would be interested in evidence that this is true. What do you have?
In fairness to Byers, I should probably be more precise. Because the whole usage of the term "primitive" is falling further and further into disfavor among biologists. In part this is because of its historic conflation with "inferior" -- precisely the mistake that Byers is making. So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake. Because he apparently cannot even see the mistake he's making. Whether the term is "primitive," in the above defined sense, or "basal," or "ancient," or whatever: none of it implies "inferior." And this is the sort of mistake the original post was trying to dispel! Meanwhile, even if these terms do not imply inferiority, it does appear to be the case that the marsupial reproductive system is at a competitive disadvantage with respect to the placental in many -- but not all -- ecological contexts. Australian marsupials have been impacted negatively by the arrival of placental competitors. On the other hand, in North America, the Virginia opossum is doing well and even seems to be expanding its range. Marsupials are near and dear to Byers' heart thanks to that loony article he wrote to explain their biogeography in terms of dispersal from Noah's Ark. Therein you will find the insane notion that the separate marsupial "kinds" are not actually related to one another but adaptive variants -- not evolved, of course, but adapted -- fitted to Australia, or fitted to migrating to Australia, by their marsupial reproductive systems. Thylacines were just dogs, bandicoots are just bunnies, etc. -- but marsupialized dogs, marsupialized bunnies.... Crazy. In the face of his blithering idiocy on all matters of biology, I doubt that being more precise about the meaning of "primitive" is helpful. I'll settle for getting him to recognize that in biology, calling something "primitive" carries no evaluative implications of inferiority or superiority at all.

Palaeonictis · 22 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said:
I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't.
Because it is more primitive.
Byers aside, I would be interested in evidence that this is true. What do you have?
In fairness to Byers, I should probably be more precise. Because the whole usage of the term "primitive" is falling further and further into disfavor among biologists. In part this is because of its historic conflation with "inferior" -- precisely the mistake that Byers is making. So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake. Because he apparently cannot even see the mistake he's making. Whether the term is "primitive," in the above defined sense, or "basal," or "ancient," or whatever: none of it implies "inferior." And this is the sort of mistake the original post was trying to dispel! Meanwhile, even if these terms do not imply inferiority, it does appear to be the case that the marsupial reproductive system is at a competitive disadvantage with respect to the placental in many -- but not all -- ecological contexts. Australian marsupials have been impacted negatively by the arrival of placental competitors. On the other hand, in North America, the Virginia opossum is doing well and even seems to be expanding its range. Marsupials are near and dear to Byers' heart thanks to that loony article he wrote to explain their biogeography in terms of dispersal from Noah's Ark. Therein you will find the insane notion that the separate marsupial "kinds" are not actually related to one another but adaptive variants -- not evolved, of course, but adapted -- fitted to Australia, or fitted to migrating to Australia, by their marsupial reproductive systems. Thylacines were just dogs, bandicoots are just bunnies, etc. -- but marsupialized dogs, marsupialized bunnies.... Crazy. In the face of his blithering idiocy on all matters of biology, I doubt that being more precise about the meaning of "primitive" is helpful. I'll settle for getting him to recognize that in biology, calling something "primitive" carries no evaluative implications of inferiority or superiority at all.
Marsupials appear in the fossil record in the Late Cretaceous, while placentals enter the fossil record during the Early Paleocene. I will too negotiate for Byers to recognize that in biology, calling something primtive carries no implications whatsoever about the notions of inferiority or superiority.

Scott F · 22 December 2014

Robert Byers said: speculation , by definition, is not saying its the result of scientific methodology. Nothing wrong with lines of reasoning if its owned up to.
Let me see if I understand. You admit that you are just "speculating", meaning that you're just making stuff up because it feels right to you. You declare this to be a "line of reasoning", which you believe to be "true", because you believe it is "true". We are to accept this "line of reasoning" without, because you admit that you are "speculating". In contrast, scientists go out into the world, collect data, make observations, and conduct experiments. They then analyze this data that they have collected using well tested statistical methods. Based on all this work, they draw some tentative conclusions about what this data is telling them. You then reject all of this work, declaring it to be "false" because it is only a "line of reasoning". So, Robert. Who should we give more credence to? Your "speculative" "line of reasoning" made up out of whole cloth, or the "line of reasoning" supported by experiment, observation, data, and rigorous mathematical evaluation? Using the term "line of reasoning" like this to mean both "speculation" and "rigorous scientific analysis", is about the same as using the term "car" to mean both a crayon drawing done by a 5-year-old, and a Ferrari. The first one is a pretty picture that makes the 5-year-old feel good, even if he can't keep the colors inside the lines. The second one works to actually move people from point A to point B. Robert, using your own definitions of the terms, I dismiss your "speculation" as false, because it is "just a line of reasoning".

John Harshman · 22 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said:
I was told marsupialism was more primitive! It ain't.
Because it is more primitive.
Byers aside, I would be interested in evidence that this is true. What do you have?
In fairness to Byers, I should probably be more precise. Because the whole usage of the term "primitive" is falling further and further into disfavor among biologists. In part this is because of its historic conflation with "inferior" -- precisely the mistake that Byers is making. So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake.
That was my question. I don't know of any good evidence that marsupiality is primitive compared to the placental system. One might suppose so based on fossil ages, but that's both a really bad inference and one you really can't make from fossils. One might suppose so by assuming Hackelian terminal addition, since a chorio-allantoic placenta adds pieces onto a chorionic placenta, but that too is a pretty bad inference. On balance, we don't know what features of marsupials or placentals are primitive or derived, aside from skeletal features that can be mapped onto a phylogeny that has plenty of fossils.

Palaeonictis · 22 December 2014

John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.
I mean that, by the definition that DS provided, docodonts are basal to mammals, and Purgatorius is basal to primatomorphs. In the case of Purgatorius, it would be paraphyletic, because if it is the common ancestor of both plesiadapiformes and primates, it wouldn't include them. Docodonts, their phylogeny is also unstable, given that most of their remains are jaws and teeth, and the only near-complete docodont fossil I`m aware of is Castorocauda.

mattdance18 · 23 December 2014

John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said: So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake.
That was my question. I don't know of any good evidence that marsupiality is primitive compared to the placental system. One might suppose so based on fossil ages, but that's both a really bad inference and one you really can't make from fossils. One might suppose so by assuming Hackelian terminal addition, since a chorio-allantoic placenta adds pieces onto a chorionic placenta, but that too is a pretty bad inference. On balance, we don't know what features of marsupials or placentals are primitive or derived, aside from skeletal features that can be mapped onto a phylogeny that has plenty of fossils.
Agreed. The presence of epipubic bones in marsupials may be evidence that the marsupial reproductive system is "primitive," again in the sense of "continuing to resemble the reproductive system of the common ancestor of marsupials and placentals." For the extinct multituberculates, who preceded both marsupials and placentals, and the basal eutherians, who were on a lineage distinct from marsupials and leading to placentals, both had epipubic bones, too. (Placentals have lost them.) In modern marsupials, the epipubic bones support the pouch. So it is at least plausible that multituberculates and basal eutherians had a reproductive system much like modern marsupials, birthing extremely underdeveloped young who then complete their early development outside the womb. But it would be mistaken to assume that the function of the epipubic bones in modern marsupials must be what its original function was, or that the the epipubic bones of multituberculates and basal eutherians served the same function. And so mammal paleontologists argue over just what that function was. It may have assisted with locomotion, and given how differently monotremes walk in comparison to both marsupials and placentals, this too is plausible. So maybe marsupial reproduction is primitive, and maybe it's not. Either way, though, I doubt that Byers is the one to help us even to clarify the issue, let alone to solve it. Perhaps if Byers would share his thoughts on what happened to the multituberculates and basal eutherians after they disembarked at Mount Ararat?...

Palaeonictis · 23 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said: So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake.
That was my question. I don't know of any good evidence that marsupiality is primitive compared to the placental system. One might suppose so based on fossil ages, but that's both a really bad inference and one you really can't make from fossils. One might suppose so by assuming Hackelian terminal addition, since a chorio-allantoic placenta adds pieces onto a chorionic placenta, but that too is a pretty bad inference. On balance, we don't know what features of marsupials or placentals are primitive or derived, aside from skeletal features that can be mapped onto a phylogeny that has plenty of fossils.
Agreed. The presence of epipubic bones in marsupials may be evidence that the marsupial reproductive system is "primitive," again in the sense of "continuing to resemble the reproductive system of the common ancestor of marsupials and placentals." For the extinct multituberculates, who preceded both marsupials and placentals, and the basal eutherians, who were on a lineage distinct from marsupials and leading to placentals, both had epipubic bones, too. (Placentals have lost them.) In modern marsupials, the epipubic bones support the pouch. So it is at least plausible that multituberculates and basal eutherians had a reproductive system much like modern marsupials, birthing extremely underdeveloped young who then complete their early development outside the womb. But it would be mistaken to assume that the function of the epipubic bones in modern marsupials must be what its original function was, or that the the epipubic bones of multituberculates and basal eutherians served the same function. And so mammal paleontologists argue over just what that function was. It may have assisted with locomotion, and given how differently monotremes walk in comparison to both marsupials and placentals, this too is plausible. So maybe marsupial reproduction is primitive, and maybe it's not. Either way, though, I doubt that Byers is the one to help us even to clarify the issue, let alone to solve it. Perhaps if Byers would share his thoughts on what happened to the multituberculates and basal eutherians after they disembarked at Mount Ararat?...
The multituberculates, stem-eutherians and all the other creatures that Ugly Big Magic Sky Boss was trying to eliminate in order to make *the* perfect group of employees, drowned in the flood.

John Harshman · 23 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.
I mean that, by the definition that DS provided, docodonts are basal to mammals, and Purgatorius is basal to primatomorphs.
Which definition? Not, apparently, the one I was talking about ("basal clade").
In the case of Purgatorius, it would be paraphyletic, because if it is the common ancestor of both plesiadapiformes and primates, it wouldn't include them. Docodonts, their phylogeny is also unstable, given that most of their remains are jaws and teeth, and the only near-complete docodont fossil I`m aware of is Castorocauda.
How could there be evidence that Purgatorius is ancestral to anything?

Robert Byers · 24 December 2014

Scott F said:
Robert Byers said: speculation , by definition, is not saying its the result of scientific methodology. Nothing wrong with lines of reasoning if its owned up to.
Let me see if I understand. You admit that you are just "speculating", meaning that you're just making stuff up because it feels right to you. You declare this to be a "line of reasoning", which you believe to be "true", because you believe it is "true". We are to accept this "line of reasoning" without, because you admit that you are "speculating". In contrast, scientists go out into the world, collect data, make observations, and conduct experiments. They then analyze this data that they have collected using well tested statistical methods. Based on all this work, they draw some tentative conclusions about what this data is telling them. You then reject all of this work, declaring it to be "false" because it is only a "line of reasoning". So, Robert. Who should we give more credence to? Your "speculative" "line of reasoning" made up out of whole cloth, or the "line of reasoning" supported by experiment, observation, data, and rigorous mathematical evaluation? Using the term "line of reasoning" like this to mean both "speculation" and "rigorous scientific analysis", is about the same as using the term "car" to mean both a crayon drawing done by a 5-year-old, and a Ferrari. The first one is a pretty picture that makes the 5-year-old feel good, even if he can't keep the colors inside the lines. The second one works to actually move people from point A to point B. Robert, using your own definitions of the terms, I dismiss your "speculation" as false, because it is "just a line of reasoning".
Off thread but your right. Speculation/lines of reasoning is not scientific methodology. You can tell the difference. Yes I insist using fossils etc etc etc is not bio sci investigation. using mere data points and drawing trees or relationships is only lines of reasoning. What connects the data points is not bio sci demonstrated. its a flawed investigation that strangely sticks around.

Robert Byers · 24 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said: So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake.
That was my question. I don't know of any good evidence that marsupiality is primitive compared to the placental system. One might suppose so based on fossil ages, but that's both a really bad inference and one you really can't make from fossils. One might suppose so by assuming Hackelian terminal addition, since a chorio-allantoic placenta adds pieces onto a chorionic placenta, but that too is a pretty bad inference. On balance, we don't know what features of marsupials or placentals are primitive or derived, aside from skeletal features that can be mapped onto a phylogeny that has plenty of fossils.
Agreed. The presence of epipubic bones in marsupials may be evidence that the marsupial reproductive system is "primitive," again in the sense of "continuing to resemble the reproductive system of the common ancestor of marsupials and placentals." For the extinct multituberculates, who preceded both marsupials and placentals, and the basal eutherians, who were on a lineage distinct from marsupials and leading to placentals, both had epipubic bones, too. (Placentals have lost them.) In modern marsupials, the epipubic bones support the pouch. So it is at least plausible that multituberculates and basal eutherians had a reproductive system much like modern marsupials, birthing extremely underdeveloped young who then complete their early development outside the womb. But it would be mistaken to assume that the function of the epipubic bones in modern marsupials must be what its original function was, or that the the epipubic bones of multituberculates and basal eutherians served the same function. And so mammal paleontologists argue over just what that function was. It may have assisted with locomotion, and given how differently monotremes walk in comparison to both marsupials and placentals, this too is plausible. So maybe marsupial reproduction is primitive, and maybe it's not. Either way, though, I doubt that Byers is the one to help us even to clarify the issue, let alone to solve it. Perhaps if Byers would share his thoughts on what happened to the multituberculates and basal eutherians after they disembarked at Mount Ararat?...
its off thread and I get blamed. The same equation. Classification has been wrong. These divisions are myths. Marsupials and all the rest are just varieties of KInds from off the ark. Thats why its impossible for any definition segregating or scoring reproductive systems to have a conclusion of primitive/inferiority etc. they are all as complex as each other. Just different for different needs.

phhht · 24 December 2014

Robert Byers said:
mattdance18 said:
John Harshman said:
mattdance18 said: So I should probably be saying something like "basal," or simply "ancient" or "archaic," since as far as I know, marsupials enter the fossil record several million years ahead of the placentals. (If I am wrong, then by all means, correct me.) The marsupial reproductive system is likely not primitive in terms of resembling that of the common ancestor any more than does the placental reproductive system. But I've been trying not to muddy the waters too much for Byers' sake.
That was my question. I don't know of any good evidence that marsupiality is primitive compared to the placental system. One might suppose so based on fossil ages, but that's both a really bad inference and one you really can't make from fossils. One might suppose so by assuming Hackelian terminal addition, since a chorio-allantoic placenta adds pieces onto a chorionic placenta, but that too is a pretty bad inference. On balance, we don't know what features of marsupials or placentals are primitive or derived, aside from skeletal features that can be mapped onto a phylogeny that has plenty of fossils.
Agreed. The presence of epipubic bones in marsupials may be evidence that the marsupial reproductive system is "primitive," again in the sense of "continuing to resemble the reproductive system of the common ancestor of marsupials and placentals." For the extinct multituberculates, who preceded both marsupials and placentals, and the basal eutherians, who were on a lineage distinct from marsupials and leading to placentals, both had epipubic bones, too. (Placentals have lost them.) In modern marsupials, the epipubic bones support the pouch. So it is at least plausible that multituberculates and basal eutherians had a reproductive system much like modern marsupials, birthing extremely underdeveloped young who then complete their early development outside the womb. But it would be mistaken to assume that the function of the epipubic bones in modern marsupials must be what its original function was, or that the the epipubic bones of multituberculates and basal eutherians served the same function. And so mammal paleontologists argue over just what that function was. It may have assisted with locomotion, and given how differently monotremes walk in comparison to both marsupials and placentals, this too is plausible. So maybe marsupial reproduction is primitive, and maybe it's not. Either way, though, I doubt that Byers is the one to help us even to clarify the issue, let alone to solve it. Perhaps if Byers would share his thoughts on what happened to the multituberculates and basal eutherians after they disembarked at Mount Ararat?...
its off thread and I get blamed. The same equation. Classification has been wrong. These divisions are myths. Marsupials and all the rest are just varieties of KInds from off the ark. Thats why its impossible for any definition segregating or scoring reproductive systems to have a conclusion of primitive/inferiority etc. they are all as complex as each other. Just different for different needs.
It's off-topic (not "off-thread"), but why don't you come on over to the Wall and discuss the Christmas Eve cover story of Newsweek, you pitiful loony?

Palaeonictis · 24 December 2014

John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.
I mean that, by the definition that DS provided, docodonts are basal to mammals, and Purgatorius is basal to primatomorphs.
Which definition? Not, apparently, the one I was talking about ("basal clade").
Purgatorius is possibly basal to the primatomorpha, because of similarities in the molars. So, if Purgatorius was ancestral to both primates and plesiadapiformes, then it would be a basal clade.
In the case of Purgatorius, it would be paraphyletic, because if it is the common ancestor of both plesiadapiformes and primates, it wouldn't include them. Docodonts, their phylogeny is also unstable, given that most of their remains are jaws and teeth, and the only near-complete docodont fossil I`m aware of is Castorocauda.
John Harshman said: How could there be evidence that Purgatorius is ancestral to anything?
Similarities in dental morphology.

John Harshman · 24 December 2014

Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.
I mean that, by the definition that DS provided, docodonts are basal to mammals, and Purgatorius is basal to primatomorphs.
Which definition? Not, apparently, the one I was talking about ("basal clade").
Purgatorius is possibly basal to the primatomorpha, because of similarities in the molars. So, if Purgatorius was ancestral to both primates and plesiadapiformes, then it would be a basal clade.
In the case of Purgatorius, it would be paraphyletic, because if it is the common ancestor of both plesiadapiformes and primates, it wouldn't include them. Docodonts, their phylogeny is also unstable, given that most of their remains are jaws and teeth, and the only near-complete docodont fossil I`m aware of is Castorocauda.
John Harshman said: How could there be evidence that Purgatorius is ancestral to anything?
Similarities in dental morphology.
How can a "basal clade" be a clade at all? If it's ancestral to some extant taxa, it isn't a clade. I suppose it would be possible for Purgatorius to be an internal branch, not a terminal node; after all, there are ancestors. But how would we tell? Similarities in dental morphology to what? How do you distinguish ancestors from cousins?

mattdance18 · 24 December 2014

Robert Byers said: Yes I insist using fossils etc etc etc is not bio sci investigation.
Moronic.
using mere data points and drawing trees or relationships is only lines of reasoning. What connects the data points is not bio sci demonstrated.
Equally moronic. "What connects the data points" is "bio sci demonstrated." It's why the line of reasoning results in a particular tree being drawn or particular relationships being inferred. You seem to make no distinction between "speculation" and "inference based on evidence." And that, Robert, is a massive problem. I wouldn't trust your characterization of "bio sci," however you do indeed characterize it, to be remotely scientific. Especially after reading your semi-literate farce of a paper on marsupials.

Henry J · 24 December 2014

How can a “basal clade” be a clade at all? If it’s ancestral to some extant taxa, it isn’t a clade.

I thought the term meant a clade that retains a lot of similarity to the ancestral species, or at least a lot more so than the average descendant of that species. Did I misunderstand that?

mattdance18 · 24 December 2014

Robert Byers said: its off thread and I get blamed.
Oh, cry me a river. Despite your trolling, a couple of us have, against our better judgement, played along this time and are trying to engage you, yet you persist in making the same mistake over and over again, and also in whining about how no one will engage you.
The same equation. Classification has been wrong. These divisions are myths. Marsupials and all the rest are just varieties of KInds from off the ark.
These distinctions are hardly myths, Robert. Marsupials are genetically closer to one another than to any non-marsupials. There are also numerous biological features that have nothing to do with their reproductive systems that they share in common with one another, and with no other non-marsupials (e.g. skull structures). Polar bears live in the Arctic, yet they are clearly bears in terms of genetics and anatomy. Arctic foxes live in the same area and have many similar adaptations, yet they are still clearly foxes in terms of genetics and anatomy. The fact that they are both adapted to the same area has not led to genetic and anatomical confusions. Thylacines were never wolves. If they were, there would be genetic and anatomical evidence for it -- and there isn't. Bandicoots aren't bunnies, quolls aren't cats, marsupial moles are not true moles. (And what exactly were kangaroos, when they were still on the Ark?...) Once you look at the details of genetics and anatomy, these distinctions are abundantly clear. And it is quite telling that in your absurd paper on the topic, you don't look into these details at all. It's not clear why you would, I suppose, given that you evidently don't think that any of the things that science might actually use as evidence to support a line of reasoning is dismissed by you as not really 'bio sci investigation,' whatever that juvenile- and uneducated-sounding buzz-phrase is supposed to mean, exactly. Anyway, if you're not going to pay attention to the actual evidence, and if you're just going to dismiss any empirical evidence for supporting only "lines of reasoning," then please, just shut up. You're not doing science, you're not even trying to do science, you're just making unsupportable assertion after unsupportable assertion. And whining about how no one takes your unsupportable assertions seriously. Waaaaaaaahhhhh.
Thats why its impossible for any definition segregating or scoring reproductive systems to have a conclusion of primitive/inferiority etc. they are all as complex as each other. Just different for different needs.
And yet again, you make the same mistake. "Primitive" does not imply "inferiority." (And it also does not imply simplicity.) How many times does this have to be said before you acknowledge it? It's like arguing with a brick. Unless you provide significant substantive responses to some of the above points, I'm done trying to argue with you on a main thread. I will soon be posting a few questions for you, off this topic, on the Bathroom Wall. And I really would love to discuss them, in that more appropriate forum. Please get over your hatred of the Wall and join me. Or don't.

Just Bob · 24 December 2014

"And what exactly were kangaroos, when they were still on the Ark?"

Ooh! Ooh! Can I answer?

Well, they hop around on two legs... so what else does that? I Know! Birds! So kangaroos are just descendants of the Bird Kind, adapted for Australian conditions. (How'm I doin', Bobby?)

But wait, no... What animal on the Ark had a body most shaped like a kangaroo? Two big hind legs, smaller front legs, a long, heavy tail? The Tyrannosaurus rex! That's who moved to Australia and evolved adapted itself in a couple hundred years to become a marsupial mammal!

Gee, what's so hard about this bio sci stuff? I can do it without no PhD!

Scott F · 24 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
Robert Byers said: its off thread and I get blamed.
Oh, cry me a river. Despite your trolling, a couple of us have, against our better judgement, played along this time and are trying to engage you, yet you persist in making the same mistake over and over again, and also in whining about how no one will engage you.
At least the discussion is relatively on topic in this case - the topic being phylogenomic fallacies. Robert does an exceedingly good job of demonstrating those fallacies.
Thats why its impossible for any definition segregating or scoring reproductive systems to have a conclusion of primitive/inferiority etc. they are all as complex as each other. Just different for different needs.
And yet again, you make the same mistake. "Primitive" does not imply "inferiority." (And it also does not imply simplicity.) How many times does this have to be said before you acknowledge it? It's like arguing with a brick. Unless you provide significant substantive responses to some of the above points, I'm done trying to argue with you on a main thread.
Maybe a brick, maybe a pile of sand. A brick has structure, and can be broken if hit hard enough. The sand pile is actually more impervious. You hit a pile of sand, and it absorbs the blow and is still a pile of sand. But you aren't arguing with Robert. First, it isn't an "argument". You are simply countering fanciful, speculative musings with scientific evidence and facts. An argument would suggest that there is some rational, viable idea on the other side to argue against. In this very thread we've seen what a real "scientific" "argument" (or "discussion") looks like, say between Palaeonictis, John Harshman, DS, and others: trying to reach agreement on the definition of terms, an exchange, a give and take of ideas and observations, each one giving ground to try to reach a mutual understanding. The contrast between the two kinds of conversations is like night and day. Second, it isn't "Robert" who's the target. It's the hypothetical "lurker", reading the threads and drawing their own silent conclusions. Robert is impervious to evidence, logic, and reason. He is dismissive of all three. In fact, he holds "logic" and "reason" in contempt. For Robert, it's all about the crayon drawings that make him feel warm and comfy. Yet he is the foil, laying out the most absurd Creationist talking points, to which we can then provide counter evidence. It can actually help clarify the evidence. Why is evidence "X" instructive? What does it tell us? How can it be misunderstood? The lurker who is persuaded by evidence and reason, is the reason for the "argument". But then, you already knew all that. :-) It can get frustrating, though, as when in the course of otherwise normal human conversation, we get emotionally involved in the subject. It can be infuriating when we discover that the brick or the pile of sand can't be reasoned with. Don't get frustrated by the pile of sand.

Henry J · 24 December 2014

(And what exactly were kangaroos, when they were still on the Ark?…)

Texan visiting Australia for the first time: (for several things he saw, Texas has a bigger version of it). Hey, what's that? Australian: "Ain't ya'll got grasshoppers in Texas?" Henry

Palaeonictis · 24 December 2014

John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
Palaeonictis said:
John Harshman said:
DS said: A ‘basal clade’ is a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa.
Yeah, I didn't understand what that meant, as the definition there does not describe a clade at all. Nor do I know how you would use that term in a sentence.
Here's how you would use it in a sentence: Cimolestans are basal eutherians. Or, miacoids are basal to Carnivora.
Cimolestans and miacoids are not "a part of the tree ending at a node before two or more terminal taxa". That's what I want to know about.
Actually, miacoids are. They're basal carnivorans, well, stem-carnivorans. Just as docodonts are basal to mammals, or stem-mammals, or Purgatorius is basal to both primates and plesiadapiformes.
Not sure what you mean. Do you mean that they're paraphyletic? But even if so, they're composed of terminal taxa, not internal branches. And of course they aren't clades, if so, and that was the definition of a "basal clade". I'm afraid that "basal clade" is self-contradictory.
I mean that, by the definition that DS provided, docodonts are basal to mammals, and Purgatorius is basal to primatomorphs.
Which definition? Not, apparently, the one I was talking about ("basal clade").
Purgatorius is possibly basal to the primatomorpha, because of similarities in the molars. So, if Purgatorius was ancestral to both primates and plesiadapiformes, then it would be a basal clade.
In the case of Purgatorius, it would be paraphyletic, because if it is the common ancestor of both plesiadapiformes and primates, it wouldn't include them. Docodonts, their phylogeny is also unstable, given that most of their remains are jaws and teeth, and the only near-complete docodont fossil I`m aware of is Castorocauda.
John Harshman said: How could there be evidence that Purgatorius is ancestral to anything?
Similarities in dental morphology.
How can a "basal clade" be a clade at all? If it's ancestral to some extant taxa, it isn't a clade. I suppose it would be possible for Purgatorius to be an internal branch, not a terminal node; after all, there are ancestors. But how would we tell? Similarities in dental morphology to what? How do you distinguish ancestors from cousins?
By "ancestor" means something very close to the original common ancestor. Purgatorius had similarities to primates in their molar morphology after all, as well as plesiadapiformes. http://www.ucmp.berkeley.edu/glossary/glossary_1.html According to UCMP a "basal group" would be the earliest diverging group within a clade, such as the miacids.

Palaeonictis · 24 December 2014

mattdance18 said:
Robert Byers said: its off thread and I get blamed.
Oh, cry me a river. Despite your trolling, a couple of us have, against our better judgement, played along this time and are trying to engage you, yet you persist in making the same mistake over and over again, and also in whining about how no one will engage you.
The same equation. Classification has been wrong. These divisions are myths. Marsupials and all the rest are just varieties of KInds from off the ark.
These distinctions are hardly myths, Robert. Marsupials are genetically closer to one another than to any non-marsupials. There are also numerous biological features that have nothing to do with their reproductive systems that they share in common with one another, and with no other non-marsupials (e.g. skull structures).
Marsupials are also closely related to placentals, albeit the fact that the last time they shared a common ancestor was 160 Ma, during the Jurassic period. Multituberculates could be more closely related to therians (i.e. placentals and stem-placentals, and marsupials and stem-marsupias) than monotremes, or vice versa.

John Harshman · 24 December 2014

Henry J said:

How can a “basal clade” be a clade at all? If it’s ancestral to some extant taxa, it isn’t a clade.

I thought the term meant a clade that retains a lot of similarity to the ancestral species, or at least a lot more so than the average descendant of that species. Did I misunderstand that?
In a word, yes.
Palaeonictis said: By "ancestor" means something very close to the original common ancestor. Purgatorius had similarities to primates in their molar morphology after all, as well as plesiadapiformes. http://www.ucmp.berkeley.edu/glossary/glossary_1.html According to UCMP a "basal group" would be the earliest diverging group within a clade, such as the miacids.
"Ancestor" means ancestor. Something very floe to the ancestor is close, but not an ancestor. Purgatorius might have a transitional molar morphology, but that hardly means it's an ancestor. Archaeopteryx has a lot of transitional characters too. And that definition on the Berkeley site is the very definition that the original post is railing against. And rightly so. Neither one of two sister groups can be the "basal" one or the "first to diverge". Sister groups are of exactly the same age.

Palaeonictis · 25 December 2014

John Harshman said:
Henry J said:

How can a “basal clade” be a clade at all? If it’s ancestral to some extant taxa, it isn’t a clade.

I thought the term meant a clade that retains a lot of similarity to the ancestral species, or at least a lot more so than the average descendant of that species. Did I misunderstand that?
In a word, yes.
Palaeonictis said: By "ancestor" means something very close to the original common ancestor. Purgatorius had similarities to primates in their molar morphology after all, as well as plesiadapiformes. http://www.ucmp.berkeley.edu/glossary/glossary_1.html According to UCMP a "basal group" would be the earliest diverging group within a clade, such as the miacids.
"Ancestor" means ancestor. Something very floe to the ancestor is close, but not an ancestor. Purgatorius might have a transitional molar morphology, but that hardly means it's an ancestor. Archaeopteryx has a lot of transitional characters too. And that definition on the Berkeley site is the very definition that the original post is railing against. And rightly so. Neither one of two sister groups can be the "basal" one or the "first to diverge". Sister groups are of exactly the same age.
Like marsupials and placentals. One isn't more primitive than the other. I was following DS's initial definition, such as miacoids being basal to the carnivora (a.k.a the carnivoramorpha to incorporate both miacoids and their descendants, the carnivora). Miacis would be paraphyletic, because *if* indeed M. cognitus was a member of the carnivora, then Miacis, which is usually considered to be outside the carnivora, would have to incorporate carnivora to be monophyletic. And since carnivora isn't considered to be miacoids, then Miacis and kin would NOT be considered a clade, although one could argue to seperate M. cognitus entirely from Miacis into its own genus, within the carnivora.

Dale · 28 December 2014

Even the way we name ourselves and the groups we belong to shows our human-centered biases. Like naming ourselves "Homo sapiens" (wise man, do we really deserve to be considered wise?), Primates (prime means first, so the order we are in is the first, right?), or even the calling of the sub-phylum we are in the Vertebrates and referring to all others as "Invertebrates" as if having a backbone makes us more special than insects or mollusks.

Palaeonictis · 28 December 2014

Dale said: Even the way we name ourselves and the groups we belong to shows our human-centered biases. Like naming ourselves "Homo sapiens" (wise man, do we really deserve to be considered wise?), Primates (prime means first, so the order we are in is the first, right?), or even the calling of the sub-phylum we are in the Vertebrates and referring to all others as "Invertebrates" as if having a backbone makes us more special than insects or mollusks.
Yes, but it was Linnaeus who coined the name Homo sapiens and Primates, and it was Lamark who coined the terms "Invertebrates" and "Vertebrates". These men came from a time when humans were thought to be the most important and highest species of them all. Of course, "Invertebrates" has no usage in modern day biology (although it is still used in paleontology and biostratigraphy!), although it has informal usage it no longer is the valid taxon, instead being replaced by Arthropoda, Molluska, Anellids, Lobopoda, Brachiopoda, etc. etc. But even today in science, one could consider ourselves leaning a bit towards anthropocentric views, which is futile, if not dangerous as a method of investigation, especially in astrobiology or SETI.

arlin.stoltzfus · 20 January 2015

The author seems to address one fallacy by proposing another, namely that "all modern species are evolutionarily equivalent because they have been evolving for the same amount of time." If she had said all modern species are equivalent *in only the sense that* they have evolved the same amount of time, that would have been defensible. The cited reference is only about the fallacy of calling one sister clade "more basal" than another, and does not justify the grand claim that there is only one factor, time, that affects evolution.

Species are NOT evolutionarily equivalent. Lineages experience different conditions. They may have different population sizes. Clades may show different rates of speciation and extinction. Prokaryotic species have evolved under high population sizes for billions of years. We have not. Species show different degrees of cohesion depending on how sexual they are. In molecular analyses, some lineages consistently have higher rates of change. They have literally evolved more.

Furthermore, these asymmetries are not independent of post-hoc tree shape recovered in molecular analyses. If divergence in characters is linked to speciation in any way, then there will be asymmetries in phylogenies. Dealing with characters that affect speciation is an actual area of research (e.g., Maddison, Midford and Otto 2007). This isn't my area so I'm not sure how broad is the literature.

I certainly would not dismiss the possibility that non-equivalent modes of evolution are linked to the asymmetry that one often sees in phylogenetic trees, in which the tree is much more ladder-like than one expects from a model assuming equivalence.