More on the<i> New Republic</i> piece

Posted 8 July 2005 by

↗ The current version of this post is on the live site: https://pandasthumb.org/archives/2005/07/more-on-the-new.html

Todd Zywicki has this post about the New Republic article, that I think makes some good points.

Update: David Frum says his answers were misreported.

93 Comments

Andrew · 8 July 2005

Bleah. _The New Republic_, champion of Joseph Lieberman, scourge of Howard Dean, represents "The Left?" This is a tired string of right-wing talking points, with all the usual accuracy that implies.

Lurker · 8 July 2005

Here's an idea. Why don't all the pro-evolution people start encouraging school boards to teach ID? We will include specific sections in the curriculum about all the known arguments against ID (or some other form of Creationism) to balance out the time we spend teaching students about all the arguments for evolution. This guarantees a teach the controversy approach that will provide mentally stimulating material for young students. Except we will call it "Critical Thinking."

Hiero5ant · 8 July 2005

Further proof that it is muscularly possible to roll one's eyes and yawn at the same time. First he gives the benefit of the doubt to Johnson, Dembski, and Wells that they aren't lying when they say ID isn't religious, then he pulls the classic tu quoque "baldness is a hair color" trick and redefines religion to mean "fixed belief", then implies that a certain subset of these "religious" beliefs are characteristic of the left.

What's the point? That some people believe some silly things because it flatters their political conceits? Stop the presses. And start them again when Ralph Nader and Barbara Streisand declare war on science, the enlightenment, and modernity, and seek to rewrite the constitution to institute an Ahmonsonite theocracy, and then we'll have some rough symmetry in the comparison.

PZ Myers · 8 July 2005

I have to disagree. I thought Zywicki's article was crap.

Flint · 8 July 2005

So the leading lights of ID have (when the forum requires) denied that ID is religious (as distinct from when they are raising funds!) and Zywicki chooses to believe what they say when required, rather than everything else they say, and everything they DO, to the contrary? How very selective.

As for the list of silly questions Myers deconstructed, as far as I can tell Zywicki just trotted those things out as part of a general argument:

1) Those who disagree with me believe things.
2) All beliefs are religious.
3) Therefore, disagreement with me is religious disagreement.

If anything, this only emphasizes that the mind is as plastic as Myers says. For Zywicki as for any religious person, the way to make something come true is to SAY it's true.

harold · 8 July 2005

There's so much wrong with this, yet there's also one thing that's fundamentally right. First let me clear up what's wrong with it...

1) The New Republic isn't "the left", unless the term "left" refers to everything except the extreme right.

2) Virtually no-one claims that women's brains can't possibly be different, on average, in some way, from men's brains. That's just an ill-constructed straw man. The point is that women who ARE good at and interested in math or driving a big rig or whatever should be allowed to pursue their interest to the extent that their ability allows, and not subjected to prejudice or discrimination solely on the basis of their gender.

3) The few people I have met who came close to subscribing to the straw man idea that women were neurologically identical to men were by no means on the "left", nor "liberal" in the American sense of the term. They have all been socially and financially upper class, and typically quite harshly judgmental of everyone else, economically right wing, intolerant of free expression of ideas, and in many cases, Republicans. This is relevant in that it disproves the idea that this mainly straw man position, even when held (more or less), is characteristic of the "left".

4) No-one likes being told that a group they identify with is in some way "inferior". If you go around saying that Danes are inferior in some way, you'll be ill-received in Denmark. A person who shows respect to others, as advised by Jesus and many other moral teachers, generally refrains from such comments, since they are useless, hurtful, and rarely stand up to skeptical scrutiny. Ultimately, it's more offensive when the comments are blatantly untrue, but even if they're mere over-interpretations of some complex contemporary social trend, they're still annoying. Lawrence Summers violated this simple principle of decency, albeit rather mildly, and the result was predictable. The persistent right wing whine that their bigoted, hurtful, racist comments are "true", while incorrect, is also irrelevant. EVEN IF the "average woman" is "less interested" or "less talented" in math for some biological reason than the average man (and we have absolutely no strong evidence to support this useless yet potentially offensive conjecture, but EVEN IF), there is no reason to go up to women who ARE good at math and tell them that their "gender" is "inferior". It just doesn't make sense.

However, there is also something very, very right about the Zywicki piece, and I'll be back to explain shortly...

Arun · 8 July 2005

Harold, waiting with bated breath for the needle in the haystack.

Joseph O'Donnell · 8 July 2005

So the leading lights of ID have (when the forum requires) denied that ID is religious

It's even worse than that, they have Multiple Designer Confusion Disorder (MDCD). Basically they can never make up their minds if they are religious, atheistic or agnostic!

The designer is clearly the benevolant and loving God of the bible!

Then they get confused and suddenly the designer isn't God, it's now space aliens:

We are of course performing science! ID needs no God we have a perfectly natural designer in space aliens which we can test for!

but then they get confused again because they suffer MDCD after all:

We don't know who the designer is and neither can we be bothered finding one!

Clearly, a distinct and very severe case of MDCD.

Andrew · 8 July 2005

Fortunately, the DSM-IV prescribes an active treatment regimen for MDCD: 800mg of arsenic, taken twice per day, until symptoms cease.

harold · 8 July 2005

Okay, I'm back - remember, one has to wait a while between posts to PT (a rational rule designed to reduce alcohol-driven hyperverbosity and crude "shut down" attempts).

Here's what's RIGHT about the Zwyckli piece (no pun intended)...

ID is, as we have seen, running into problems in Pennsylvania and Utah. The problem, which Zwyckli seems to be unconsciously picking up on, is that it is a double deception.

Most PT posters assume that ID is religion disguised as "science". But it's really a bit more complex -

It's POLITICS disguised as phoney religion, with the phoney religion then "double disguised" as "science" in some special situations.

It goes like this. You start with a political stance - a commitment to a "laissez faire" or "robber baron" approach on social and tax policy and environmental regulations, a low threshold for war, and a weakening of civil rights, more or less - that doesn't have anything to do with religion, and may even be at odds with some religious systems (NOTE - I am not in any way attempting, in this post, to critique this underlying political stance, but rather, merely showing how ID is related to it).

To increase acceptance, you form an alliance with authoritarians who use religious language, and you adopt phoney "morality" on sexual issues. Now you have a winning system - God commands that you vote for me because I condemn abortion and gay marriage. As for social security, foreign policy, etc, well, you'll just have to take what I dish out, because the other guy is "unGodly".

But then it gets complicated. The ostensibly religious authoritarian part of your alliance wants politically-motivated religious dogma taught as "science" to school children. Their point is that otherwise, children may grow up to be tolerant of homosexuals and whatnot. That's an important point. Your whole system is based on provoking some people to vote against their economic and environmental opinions, by inflaming their bigotries. So you agree. But there's a problem. The courts don't allow dogma to be taught as "science" to schoolchildren. Even right wing judges can see that for Mormons and Catholics and Baptists to send their children to the same public schools, that can't work.

So you invent ID - a second mask, to be worn over the religious mask in court. You disguise your phoney, politically motivated "religious" stance as a "scientific" stance, in some limited circumstances. You attempt a complex dance. In court you deny that "ID" is religion, and in private, you claim that it is. But both stances are dishonest. It's politics. The problem is, the charade is now too complicated, and some of the actors start to get confused. They deny that ID is religious in private, or worse yet, say that is, in public.

Lest anyone doubt my analysis, let me offer some data to support it. The political views of sincerely religious people are variable, and the political views of sincere advocates of emerging scientific ideas are totally random. What are the politics of nuns, or string theory proponents, or even nuns who are string theory proponents? Hard question to answer. What are the politics of ID "proponents"? Easy question to answer.

It's not science versus religion. It's not science versus right wing politics, either - you can be to the right of Pinochet, and still not endorse the tactics of ID (and some ID oppenents are). It's science verus DISHONESTY. And that's what's making even a Zwyckli uncomfortable.

Chip Poirot · 8 July 2005

This post makes a lot of mistakes (some of which were just pointed out by another poster).

1. The New Republic is hardly "left", though it does occasionally publish work by people who might be broadly construed as "left liberal". At the same time, it has published a lot of neo-con stuff, and with respect to foreign policy, is pretty much indistinguishable from the neo-cons.

That said, I do not recall ever having read an article in The New Republic (not to say one was never published) that took the strong position that all differences between men and women were a result of culture, and that culture is entirely independent of biology. I would never identify The New Republic with that position.

2. I would say that the view that a) culture-at least since the agricultural revolutions starting around 10,000 ya-can be understood without reference to biology has been the default position of the vast majority of researchers in the social sciences-regardless of ideology b) the premise that culture presents a radical break with biology and that therefore humans are radically different from other humans has also been the premise of nearly everyone in the social sciences, regardless of ideology. Though I disagree with this position, if one takes the time to acquaint oneself with the history of the social sciences, it is clear that this was not a position that was adopted irrationally. Furthermore, significant valid claims to knowledge have come out of this broader research tradition. I regard it as incomplete-not irrational.

3. The much stronger view, that tends to mix relativist theories of knowledge with strong culturalist explanationsa and extreme cultural relativism, has been identified with one segment of the "academic left". I would concur that this camp has been vocal and presented itself as the "left" position. I would also agree that at least some people in this camp have been as much an obstacle to a scientific world view as many conservatives. They have had a largely negative (IMO) impact on academic discourse and the culture of academia.

4. There is still a lot of pseudo-biology and pseudo inheritance arguments circulating that receives serious consideration by conservatives. Exhibit A: Charles Murray.

5. The Bush administration has pretty much thrown in its lot with politicizing scientific inquiry and has given aid and comfort to forces in American society that wish to overturn a general scientific world view. In society at large, the clearer and more present danger to a scientific world view comes from the neo-cons and religious conservatives. They have largely drowned out the rational, secular right.

6. There is today, a significant body of scholarship emerging by people "on the left" (broadly construed) that reexamines the complex relationship between biology and culture. For an example of this type of work see the edited volume "Foundations of Human Sociality" (eds. Joseph Heinrich, Robert Boyd, Samuel Bowles, Colin Camerra, Ernst Feher, Herbert Gintis) or "Not by Genes Alone" (Robert Boyd). Clearly, Sarah Hrdy must be considered broadly "left" and self identifies as a feminist. In economics, Geoff Hodgson has written voluminously on the Darwinian foundations of Institutional Economics. Hodgson would be clearly considered to be broadly "left".

7. One may accept the premise that evolution includes what happens above the shoulders as well below the shoulders, without necessarily accepting every hypothesis or conclusion of Ev Psych. Some of Ev Psych is good and interesting. Some of it exhibits all the higher virtues of post hoc ergo propter hoc reasoning.

The article sets up a straw man. But then again, at the risk of being accused of being snide, Tim seems to delight in linking to straw man critiques of the social sciences and has yet, never demonstrated to me, any real working knowledge of what actually goes on in the social sciences.

Rob Knop · 8 July 2005

Virtually no-one claims that women's brains can't possibly be different, on average, in some way, from men's brains. That's just an ill-constructed straw man. The point is that women who ARE good at and interested in math or driving a big rig or whatever should be allowed to pursue their interest to the extent that their ability allows, and not subjected to prejudice or discrimination solely on the basis of their gender.

Unfortunately, that claim is made, and isn't just a straw man. The point you make is the rational point, of course. But rather than try to go with the rational argument (which, granted, often seems not to work very well in this society), organizations in favor of equal opportunity try to back it up by arguing what you call the straw man. As an example, give you the case I'm most familiar with: http://www.aas.org/~cswa/Equity_Now_Pasadena.pdf The Committee on the Status of Women in Astronomy list as their very first "guiding principle" that "Women and men are equally talented and deserve equal opportunity." Of course, the first statement is dubious in and of itself because no two individuals, regardless of gender, are equally talented in all things. But I think it unfortunate that the CSWA used this as the basis for something so important as equal opportunity. For there *is* evidence that men's and women's brains are better. It's not clear which one is "better" for astronomy, and indeed I don't believe that aptitude for astronomy is such a single valued thing that it may even be possibly to identify that. But it's much more complicated than a blanket assertion that "men and women are equally talented." Yet there's the assertion. Argue against the assertion, you are arguing against the first guiding principle of the Committee on the Status of Women in Astronomy, and now you have the appearance of arguing against improving the lot of women in astronomy. Which I am very much not arguing against. I wish it were just a straw man. But it's not, no more than Young Earth Creationism is the star man that IDiots would have us think it is, and we all need to be aware of that. -Rob

Chip Poirot · 8 July 2005

While I'm on my soapbox, let me make a more general point about Summers.

Summers' mistake (again IMO) was not in referencing biological differences between male and female patterns of reasoning. His mistake was offering this as a)established fact when it is still very much an hypothesis that needs to be pursued and better defined and b) jumping from hypothesis about biology to making a conclusion about labor market outcomes. The remarks came off as ill informed (which they were) and as sloppy reasoning. This gave the appearance of trying to justify a perceived climate of gender discrimination in Harvard's Sciences Department.

I don't dispute Summers' right to engage in speculative statements or his right to make generally provocative statements. Nor do I think all the response to him was entirely well thought out either. But I don't buy the premise that he is a victim of the PC thought police. More like a victim of foot in mouth disease.

Rob Knop · 8 July 2005

For there *is* evidence that men's and women's brains are better.

I can't believe I said that. What I meant to say was "there *is* evidence that men's and women's brains are *different*." (Maybe I was going to say "better at different things, but I didn't really want to say that.) I'm not sure that it's clear which things men and women have, on the average, better aptitude for as a result of biology (as opposed to culture and upbringing stuff). Perhaps there is some evidence that I'm unaware of. -Rob

Mike P · 8 July 2005

Rob, I think the point is that it's irresponsible to say someone has better aptitude "as a result of biology," because it's never that simple. It is always a combination of biology and environment. I see your point, and it might very well be true that there could be a statistical correlation between certain aptitudes and gender, but it would be egregious to describe that as "biological" or "genetic," because there are so many other factors. Blame it on the bogus nature vs. nurture, dichotomous nature of the argument, but we need to move away from the idea that anything in the development of the mind is either black or white. Instead, it's a rainbow.

Of course, if we start using a rainbow analogy, the conservatives will have one more thing to hate about it.

Flint · 8 July 2005

harold:

By and large, I think you have missed it. ID is probably best viewed as the political action arm of creationism. But politics isn't the goal, only the path one must follow to get a theocratic government installed in the US. I think you have the strategy basically correct: take your religious goals and rephrase them in such a way as to do an end-run around legal restrictions (the head-on approach failed). With the legal oversight neutralized, we can use PR techniques to mobilize the evangelical population into political action. When these people should succeed politically, they can appoint (or be elected as) creationist judges, and the snowball can accellerate.

Politics is a tool more than a goal. The goal is to use political methods to enable the use of civil authority to enforce moral behavior as God demanded (in the opinion of those who fantasize about wielding that authority). Another nice side effect of political power -- if you have it, you can use it to make exceptions to moral behavior in the case of yourself and those useful to you. It's no coincidence that the US Senate routinely exempts itself from the workplace restrictions they enact on everyone else.

As for the "science", this is nearly an afterthought. Science has earned so much respect that if it can somehow be enlisted in support of the theocratic goals, the political skids are much more effectively greased.

harold · 8 July 2005

Rob -

I still think Zwyckli is constructing a straw man.

It is true that, in American society, groups of individuals who feel or have felt a burden of discrimination will engage in reactive "positive discrimination". For example, it's widely believed that people of Irish descent helped one another get jobs on urban police forces during the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.

Similarly, there are "women's" groups in most scientific and business environments, whose blatant and open goal is to promote women in the field, as aggressively as legally possible. It goes without saying that if women had not been, traditionally, excluded from science and business, these groups would not exist. It is clear to me that women still face some discrimination, and that the popularity of these groups is driven by this. Whether these groups will ever go away is an open question (my guess is they won't, not even if every member of the profession in question is a woman), but their level of activity and support is likely to reflect the degree of discrimination perceived by women.

However, despite all this, the document you link makes only a vague statement that "women" have equal "talent". The implication is that the "average" woman is about as likely to make a good astronomer as the average man, undeniably, but it's hardly like the nonsense Zwyckli would put into the mouths of imaginary "leftists". Strong statements that women could not possibly be neurologically different from men in any way, as Zwyckli implies we should find, are NOT present.

If someone were to declare that women are, on average, inferior as astronomers, it is undeniable that the group you draw attention to would probably barbecue that someone's cajones. As I point out, this is just the universal human response to such unkind and overgeneralized statements. Especially if one is a self-proclaimed Christian, but even if not, one should refrain from profitlessly insulting people with these kinds of remarks, which one would so dislike having directed toward oneself. One thing I intensely dislike about Zwyckli's article is his implicit defense of Lawrence Summers. It's just incompetent for a man whose role is president of a university to pointlessly insult a large group of faculty members. It's obvious that academic and professional disciplines show imbalanced gender and ethnic characteristics, but there's no logical reason to use this fact to make uncalled-for and illogical remarks. Summers' remarks were actually rather mild, but they predictably touched a very raw nerve, and he should have known better.

We need to distinguish between negative and positive discrimination. Negative discrimination is many orders of magnitude worse.

It's one thing to say "we need a qualified candidate, and if multiple equally qualified candidates are available, try to get a woman" (positive discrimination). That may be, in some ways, reprehensible. It's not really a debate for this forum. My general stance is pragmatic. I support "enforcing existing positive discrimination programs" but not creating any new ones. But again, this is not the forum for this debate.

It's another thing altogether to say "despite your excellent qualifications, you can't have the job because you're a member of a group we discriminate against" (negative discrimination). This type of discrimination is morally repulsive and appropriately unconstitutional.

Unfortunately, there are some people so immoral and cynical that they express intense opposition to "positive discrimination" (eg affirmative action) as a coded way of signalling that they secretly sympathize with the repellent and illegal concept of negative discrimination. Not everyone who opposes positive discrimination falls into this category, I hasten to add.

There is some concern that the "straight white Protestant males" of the population (a group to which I belong) may suffer, not merely from losing our supposedly desirable former status as the only group NOT being discriminated against (a status I am happy to have lost), but from the lack of "positive discrimination groups" working on our behalf (whereas some other categories of people do have such groups). Fortunately, all data indicates that we continue to do just fine, so I personally feel that this concern is exaggerated, to say the least. This concern is a major political factor in the US, however, and probably accounts for the voting patterns of "white men" to a large degree.

H. Humbert · 8 July 2005

Posted by harold on July 8, 2005 11:58

Most PT posters assume that ID is religion disguised as "science". But it's really a bit more complex - It's POLITICS disguised as phoney religion, with the phoney religion then "double disguised" as "science" in some special situations.

Hmm. I'd say ID is religion attempting social engineering through politics by disguising itself as science. Politics is only the means. Religion is the goal.

harold · 8 July 2005

Flint -

I don't deny that manipulating some people who sincerely believe in a "theocracy" is part of the strategy, but for the most part, I really think that this is politics.

If the motivation behind all this is sincere religious belief, why are all these people lock step "conservatives" on economic, foreign policy, and non-sex related social issues?

My analysis explains this perfectly - it's about power and money, also known as "politics" - they're right wing first, and while a few of them may believe in some sort of religion, most of them are just hypocrites, pretending to be "religious" in order to advance their agenda.

If religion is driving them into politics, as you seem to be saying, then why isn't there a single voice saying "I believe in ID, but Jesus would want us to be nice to suffering people"? Why is every sponsor of an "anti-evolution" policy for public education, anywhere, at any level, always a "conservative" Republican?

I am NOT arguing against your perfect right to be a conservative Republican on other issues who supports strong scientific education, if that's the deal.

Liberal ID supporters - are you out there? I've asked individual creationists, before, whether they would support creationism if it were associated with "liberalism" instead of right wing politics, or if its advocates were Democrats. The answer has always been a "creationist no" - the sound of silence, that is.

SEF · 8 July 2005

Isn't it the case that bad religion (of the reality-denying, self-contradicting, me-me-me creationist/ID kind) is indistinguishable from politics. Hence the confusion over which comes first or is the driving force behind the other. I think the underlying cause is particularly scummy humans - whatever the overt movement to which they pledge their allegiance happens to be.

Henry J · 8 July 2005

So maybe what we have here is either politi-gion or relig-itics?

On second thought, never mind.

'Rev Dr' Lenny Flank · 8 July 2005

Most PT posters assume that ID is religion disguised as "science". But it's really a bit more complex - It's POLITICS disguised as phoney religion, with the phoney religion then "double disguised" as "science" in some special situations.

Amen, brother. This is a POLITICAL fight, not a scientific one. And that is why science is, to a very large extent, utterly irrelevant to it. The IDers will not be beaten by picking apart their "science". They will only be beaten the same way every OTHER political movement is beaten --- by out-organizing it, and then using political strength to grind it into the ground. Disrupt their organizing effotrts, interfere with their funding, encourage and exacerbate internal faction fights, cut them off from potential recruits. Those who don't want to get their hands dirty with such a thing, are in the wrong fight.

'Rev Dr' Lenny Flank · 8 July 2005

We have a Left in the US?

Where has it been hiding for the past 90 years or so?

Flint · 8 July 2005

harold:

We may be agreeing here, but I'm not convinced yet. I understand that there is a general constellation of "conservative positions" in the sense of a religious rather than a fiscal conservative. After all, these people are not particularly concerned with the group of conservative platform planks like reducing taxes, eliminating much regulation and most regulatory agencies, paying down the national debt, making government less intrusive at all levels, etc. I'm not saying they do NOT hold these positions, only that I see them making no noise about them. In fact, I see some serious disagreement with the Religious Right about the wisdom of our foreign policies -- some love, others detest the Iraq war. Some are anti-NAFTA fanatics, others (the shareholder types) love it.

Instead, the hot-button noisy issues revolve around "conservative morality" -- mostly dealing with repressing sexuality, criminalizing homosexuality, denying AIDs (a sexually transmitted disease), denying evolution, opposing abortion (to the point of eviscerating American science programs across the board to kill embryonic stem cell research), defending "blue laws" and laws against any sexual practice imaginable (even including sunbathing), and getting creationists elected to school boards, state judiciary, and whatever.

And so I agree that the TOOLS are power and money, and these are the coin of politics. But the long-range application of the coveted power isn't just to line their pockets and enjoy high social status, but rather to use the engines of government to punish behaviors they dislike (mostly sexual, but evolution is another devil) when engaged in by people they don't like (but not the in-crowd).

Lenny is quite correct, this is a political battle. But it's a political battle to see who gets to impose whose moral absolutes on everyone else, who gets to decide which victimless activites are crimes against God. Science is just a thin disguise here; it's irrelevant. And I think you are also correct in saying that the motivation is not entirely "sincere religious belief". But there are important nuances here, nonetheless. Every politician has some idealism, some vision of what's best for society. Every politician runs for and holds office at least partly (and in my experience for the largest part) because in that position s/he can actually DO something good. And every politician is intensely aware that every OTHER politician feels the same way -- they just disagree on what's good and what's bad (and of course, since they all have constituencies, much of the political battle involves whose district the money is spent in. But that's another topic altogether).

In this sense, political power IS used to follow a religious agenda. Sure, Philip Johnson is profoundly hypocritical in much of what he says and does. But I deny he is hypocritical about his overall goals, or that those goals are to impose "moral behavior" onto an immature and confused public who (whether they know it or not) would be SO MUCH better off under Johnson's notion of God's Will. Did you read Stephen Crouse's url=http://www.facultylinc.com/personal/facoffice.nsf/Storys+By+Staff+ID/bulldog15?OpenDocument]personal material? If he follows any non-religious party line, surely it's because his church tells him to do so. He is not atypical of the people we're talking about.

(I also think your question to creationists is kind of meaningless. Liberals and Democrats don't tend to accept the religious view of the world, and doing so would require rather profound changes in their positions on countless issues. There's no coherent way to stick a creationist sticker onto a thoroughly noncreationist pattern).

Tom Curtis · 8 July 2005

harold: First, I enjoyed your demolishment of Zywicki's argument. However, I disagree when you say:

I don't deny that manipulating some people who sincerely believe in a "theocracy" is part of the strategy, but for the most part, I really think that this is politics. If the motivation behind all this is sincere religious belief, why are all these people lock step "conservatives" on economic, foreign policy, and non-sex related social issues?

For a start, not all fellow travelers of the ID movement are "lock step 'conservatives'". Denyse O'Leary, for example, inclines to the left wing. And I have never seen any statement by Behe that indicates a political preference one way or another. I believe the general association between creationism (including ID) and conservative politics comes about by a more indirect means than you indicate. Specifically, most creationists in the US worship Jesus as a God. This places them in an uncomfortable position, for Jesus clearest, most frequent and most forcefull moral teaching would, if applied in the political arena, require them to advocated a form of socialism. They would be substantially to the left of the Democrats, and probably to the left of Nader Greens. Applied individually, they would be amongst the poorest US citizens regardless of their incomes due to the size of their charitable givings. To sublimate this conflict between the values of the God they worship and their actual values, they overemphasise other aspects of Christian teaching. By their forcefull condemnation of sexual "immorality" and abortion, they allow themselves to believe they are really following Jesus moral teaching. By emphatically defending the theological doctrine of creation, they allow themselves to think how strongly they are standing up for the "God" whose commands they habitually disobey. The association between creationism and conservative politics, on this view, comes about because the more right wing your politics, the greater the dissonance between your political views and the actual teachings of Jesus. And hence the greater the need for some displacement to obscure that dissonance. One advantage of this view is that it need not attribute so cynical a motive or course of action to creationists and your suporters as your view does. As displacement must be subconcious to be effective, on my theory the motives of creationists are in general sincere.

frank schmidt · 8 July 2005

Bloody Plato! Why couldn't he have learned statistics, at least the bell-shaped curve? Oh yeah, it wasn't invented for a couple millenia. Well, it's been a couple hundred years since it did get developed, but clowns of various sorts represented by Zywicki are still thinking in terms of Platonic forms. (Except when they're lauding Charles Murray, who used the bell curve to demonstrate that he knew nothing of the phenomenon of confounding variables) It's time they got with the program.

If there is one thing that the Modern Synthesis (especially Mayr) ought to have taught us, it's that biology refers to populations, and that populations vary. And, if N is large enough, then there are a large number of the population that are several standard deviations above the mean of any trait. So there are plenty of accomplished women scientists, and they kick my butt every day.

If an undergraduate spouted such fatuous tripe as Summers did (that gender might determine scientific achievement) he would be corrected gently but firmly. Only the president of Harvard could be taken seriously when uttering such nonsense.

Rob Knop · 8 July 2005

Rob, I think the point is that it's irresponsible to say someone has better aptitude "as a result of biology," because it's never that simple. It is always a combination of biology and environment. I see your point, and it might very well be true that there could be a statistical correlation between certain aptitudes and gender, but it would be egregious to describe that as "biological" or "genetic," because there are so many other factors. Blame it on the bogus nature vs. nurture, dichotomous nature of the argument, but we need to move away from the idea that anything in the development of the mind is either black or white. Instead, it's a rainbow.

Well, in any event, trying to predict the aptitude of individuals based on any statistical factor is going to be completely flawed from the get go. So saying anything about any someone based on any group they belong to or anywhere they've been is a bad idea. But, yes, right now, saying that we can say that we know aptitudes are different because of genetics is clearly wrong. Larry Summers was wrong to suggest that, and he also ignored Occam's Razor in that we have *clear* cultural reasons for why women aren't as well represented in science. It's such a complicated system that there's no way we can make a clean answer like that. What I'm worried about, though, is that those who really want equal opportunity will assert that it is TRUE that men and women are identical. Because then any evidnece that they aren't can be used to undermine the position for equal opportunity, and to counteract that people who want equal opportunity may find them in the positions of having to shout down researchers who come up with evidence against the biological identicality of the minds of men and women. Read "The Blank Slate" by Stephen Pinker for a similar situation. There, the political left, in reaction to terrible things like eugenics that were done with genetics, argued that there was no human nature, and that it was all nurture, to support their political positions. Even when their political positions were good things to support, they had based them on bad science-- and were put in the position of having to shout down and character assassinate scientists who were learning that, yes, in fact, there is some human nature in the brain. We really don't want to fall into that trap again with gender equality/differences. Asserting that the two are identical psychologically and mentally, and therefore we should have equal opportunity, will really open us up to those who don't want equal opportunity as the evidnece that there are real physiological differences mounts. -Rob

Rob Knop · 8 July 2005

Just a note -- conservatism isn't necessarily the enemy of evolution and science. Nor is liberalism necessarily the friend of science. Right now, the nutty fringe of the conservatives in the USA have more sway than does the nutty fringe of liberalism, but in reality, science vs. anti-science is an axis that's not parallel to conservative vs. liberal.

There are plenty of flaky anti-scientists on the left. From the relativists who assert that the scientific method is just a social construction of Western Civiliazation, and that there is no real truth after all, to the astrology/stars&crystals types, there are all kinds of people on the left who would tear down science. Yes, right now antiscientists have more sway in the Republican party than they do in the Democratic party, but I think it's important to keep in mind where the real dangers lie, and to find real allies where there are real allies.

I'm fond of David Brin's categorization of "romantics" and "modernists", the former being the anti-science types and the latter being the pragmatic types. You can find both romantics and modernists in the political Left and the political Right. If we managed to get away from identifying ourselves as being on the Left and seeing everybody on the Right as being a threat, we might have a more meaningful debate. Indeed, we might be able to wrest away people on the Right who don't like the antiscientific homophobic theocratic elements of their party. (Which, before our current president, included me; our current president pushed me fully out of the Republican party.)

-Rob

Michael Rathbun · 8 July 2005

If we managed to get away from identifying ourselves as being on the Left and seeing everybody on the Right as being a threat...

— Rob Knop
In fact, if we stopped trying to project a nine-dimensional graph onto a one-dimensional line, we might have a much better idea what's going on. Remember, according to the immensely popular "left/right" model, Nelson Mandela, Pol Pot, Stalin and the Dalai Lama are all "leftists", and consequently have identical beliefs and social policies. mdr (who has met people in the USA who agree with that assertion)

Arden Chatfield · 11 July 2005

Remember, according to the immensely popular "left/right" model, Nelson Mandela, Pol Pot, Stalin and the Dalai Lama are all "leftists", and consequently have identical beliefs and social policies.  mdr (who has met people in the USA who agree with that assertion)

This isn't a rare belief at all in America. It's pretty commonly expressed among the more crude political commentators. David Horowitz has built an entire career on claiming that liberals and Stalinists are the same thing.

ts · 11 July 2005

> I think makes some good points.

Yet you were unable (or too cowardly) to name even one. Here, I'll do it for you; the one valid thing he wrote was "with respect to some participants, it is evident that they should be embarrassed."

> The Committee on the Status of Women in Astronomy list as their very first "guiding principle" that "Women and men are equally talented and deserve equal opportunity."
>
> Of course, the first statement is dubious in and of itself because no two individuals, regardless of gender, are equally talented in all things.

Of course, the statement makes no claim about individuals. Sheesh.

> Summers' mistake (again IMO) was not in referencing biological differences between male and female patterns of reasoning. His mistake was offering this as a)established fact when it is still very much an hypothesis that needs to be pursued and better defined and b) jumping from hypothesis about biology to making a conclusion about labor market outcomes.

I've read Summers' comments, and he did neither of those. While I tend to be sympathetic to the politics of his critics, I believe he was treated outrageously, his comments have been misrepresented severely, and those who have criticized him have much to be ashamed of.

Chip Poirot · 11 July 2005

ts:

It would have been helpful if you had distinguished my remarks (which were overall critical of the article linked to by Tim) from the article. I'll defend my remarks.

As I stated, and as you quote:

>"Summers' mistake (again IMO) was not in referencing biological differences between male and female patterns of reasoning. His mistake was offering this as a)established fact when it is still very much an hypothesis that needs to be pursued and better defined and b) jumping from hypothesis about biology to making a conclusion about labor market outcomes."

Summers observes on outcome: occupational segregation. Women are disproportionately underrepresented in Harvard's natural sciences department. He offers three hypotheses:

Hypothesis 1: Overt labor market discrimination (which he rejected). I would, incidentally, agree, that as economists define overt labor market discrimination Harvard is unlikely to systematically discriminate against qualified female applicants.

Hypothesis 2: Women are unwilling to make the choices required to achieve a job as a top research scientist. Labor market outcomes reflect some innate "taste" women have for "nurturing" over research work. Summers gives this as partial explanation. I only agree halfway. He leaves the "taste" undefined and thus obscures the powerful roles of socialization and assignment of gender based tasks by society.

Hypothesis 2' is better: Women are occupationally segregated as a consequence of a) historical discrimination b) societal expectations and c) culturally defined and constrained choices open to women. I see hypothesis 2' as the dominant **PROXIMATE CAUSE** explanation.

Hypothesis 3 (to which Summers attributes the overwhelming portion of the observed outcome): Biologically based differences in brain organization and patterns of thinking make women better suited to some tasks and men to others.

What is wrong with hypothesis 3?
1. It is not well defined and too vague. It is difficult to test. The research on men and women's brain organization and patterns of thinking is still very much in its infancy. All we know is that there are **some** differences. We also know (or should know) from the synthesis (Mayr's and Dobzhansky's), that we need to think in populations and not essences. So, we do not know the probability distribution of factors that make women or men **better** research scientists and we do not know the probability distribution in men and women.

2. We do not know how given brain organization patterns in men and women interacts with the socio-cultural environment to create outcomes with respect to occupational choices.

3. Thus, we cannot simply state, on the basis of research in its infancy stage, that the observed outcome is a result of biology and we cannot know how much biology plays a role, or how biology interacts with sociocultural factors.

4. We can however observe women's changes in occupational choice as society's expectations of women change and as new opportunities open up for women.

So, we should not shrink from research on biology. But we should not use biology as an excuse to shrink from rigorous hypothesis formation and testing. Summers engaged in poor scientific reasoning, and as an economist, I'm offended he presented economists as being such poor and sloppy thinkers. I would have graded Summers' performance on a test at about a C to C-.

That said, I thought some of the reaction to him was over the top. But it is perfectly appropriate to criticize people for poor reasoning. Social scientists don't get a "bye" on hypothesis testing and critical thinking skills. If anything, we should be **more** sophisticated, not less sophisticated than our counterparts in the natural sciences because the process of trying to form testable hypotheses in the social sciences is immensely more difficult than in the natural sciences. Sloppy reasoning only compounds errors.

ts · 11 July 2005

Summers stated "Let me just conclude by saying that I've given you my best guesses after a fair amount of reading the literature and a lot of talking to people. They may be all wrong." That makes claims that he offered something as fact or jumped to a conclusion prima facie false, and I note that you offered no direct quotes to support your characterizations.

Mike S. · 11 July 2005

Chip, what do you think about Nancy Hopkins response to Summers? Is getting a case of the vapours and running to the Boston Globe the kind of thing a serious academic or scientist does when presented with propositions that conflict with one's own favored explanations? And what was all the blather about how he wasn't "sensitive" enough to the effects his remarks might have on women scientists? Are women scientists so frail that they will quail at the notion that men's and women's brains might be different? The feminists want to have it both ways: men and women are equivalent, but women deserve special "sensitivity".

I think you are ridiculously understating the case by implying that Summers was "criticized for poor reasoning" - having the faculty vote no confidence is an appropriate response for poor reasoning? Please. He was tarred and feathered by the PC thought police. Zywicky is quite right: some topics are off the table in large sectors of academia. Whether the underlying motivation is religious or just "religious" is irrelevant - it violates the primary function of higher education, which is the pursuit of truth.

Chip Poirot · 11 July 2005

ts:

As I stated above, Summers offered hypotheses and stated his conclusions as "best guesses". But his best guesses reflected poor economic reasoning. There is a paradigm problem here with Summers, but I'll leave that go. I think you are jumping to conclusions and reading into my response things that are not there. We'll have to leave it at that.

Mike S:
As I said, but perhaps should have stressed more heavily, the response to Summers was way over the top. I think that Hopkins and others should have responded as I did-by showing that Summers was engaging in poor scientific reasoning-even if one accepts (as I do) that there are probably biological differences in how men and women perceive the world (as long as we engage in population thinking and not essentialistic thinking) and we recognize a good deal of overlap at the same time. And of course as long as we recognize the complex interactions of biology and culture.

So no-I don't support the over the top reaction to Summers. That reaction inhibited needed dialogue on these complex issues.

That said, if Summers wanted to really start a dialogue, he could have done so in a more effective fashion.

I might add there is a long debate here in labor economics that Summers, as someone who is considered a top notch economist, should know well and yet showed no knowledge of the issues at all. It was pure foot in mouth.

ts · 11 July 2005

> As I stated above, Summers offered hypotheses and stated his conclusions as "best guesses".

You never stated any such thing.

> I think you are jumping to conclusions and reading into my response things that are not there.

That's rich.

ts · 11 July 2005

"there are probably biological differences in how men and women perceive the world (as long as we engage in population thinking and not essentialistic thinking)"

This is complete nonsense, apparently a misplaced attempt to not commit some sort of breach of PC. While there can be population differences between male and female performance, there cannot be population differences between ways of perceiving; it is individuals, not populations, who perceive. Either there are gender-related differences in brain structure or function that result in different ways of perceiving, or there aren't.

> I don't support the over the top reaction to Summers.... That said, if Summers wanted to really start a dialogue, he could have done so in a more effective fashion.

If you don't support it, then what's the point of this comment? It's closely akin to "If she didn't want to become pregant, she shouldn't have had sex". We can all be more effective in our actions, but Summers' comments were carefully hedged and offered in an intellectual forum. His biggest mistake, it seems, was to expect the sort of mature rational behavior appropriate to a civilized society based on reason-giving.

Chip Poirot · 11 July 2005

ts,

Firstly, of course everybody knows that individuals differ in abilities, perceptions, etc. The issue before us is whether or not when we compare population of individuals 1 and population of individuals 2, whether or not there is a mean difference between the two populations. That we need to engage in population thinking rather than a) essentialistic thinking and b) static comparisons of individuals is a basic point of modern evolutionary thinking.

If we take a sample of men and women and compare them on a number of traits, the population means will probably differ and we will probably have a lot of overlap. That was what I meant and that point was clear.

Men and women **on average** will differ in various traits. All individuals in a population will have some differences. What we are interested in here is population traits (or to put it more clearly the statistical likelihood that a randomly selected male will differ from a randomly selected female at a certain level of probability).

Secondly, if you go back and read the post, you will see the context of my remarks from start to finish. It is quite clear that I said Summers offered hypotheses.

>"Summers observes on outcome: occupational segregation. Women are disproportionately underrepresented in Harvard's natural sciences department. He offers three hypotheses"

I could not have been more clear. You are reading things into my posts that are not there.

ts · 12 July 2005

> You are reading things into my posts that are not there.

You're a liar. I comment on what you write, via direct quotation. Had I read something into your posts that isn't there, you could identify an instance of same. Rather, I point out where *you* make claims that you don't support; garbage like "you will see" and "it is quite clear" doesn't cut it. These are the tools of intellectual charlatans.

Chip Poirot · 12 July 2005

This seems to be wandering off topic, and hence this is the last I will say. I respond one more time only because of ts' unprovoked resort to personal insults. Interested readers may compare what I said, what ts said, and Summers' full speech and decide for themselves. It is unfortunate that ts chooses not to address the substance of what I say. If this habit continues by ts, I'll just choose to ignore him in the future.

A direct quote from the text of Summers' speech-the full text is available here:

http://www.president.harvard.edu/speeches/2005/nber.html

Larry Summers said:
>"There are three broad hypotheses about the sources of the very substantial disparities that this conference's papers document and have been documented before with respect to the presence of women in high-end scientific professions. One is what I would call the-I'll explain each of these in a few moments and comment on how important I think they are-the first is what I call the high-powered job hypothesis. The second is what I would call different availability of aptitude at the high end, and the third is what I would call different socialization and patterns of discrimination in a search. And in my own view, their importance probably ranks in exactly the order that I just described."

Now here is a direct quote from my post above:

Chip Poirot said in #37487
"Summers observes on outcome: occupational segregation. Women are disproportionately underrepresented in Harvard's natural sciences department. He offers three hypotheses:"

Now one can directly compare Summers' exact words and one can compare Poirot's summary of Summers. One can compare how Summers describes his hypotheses and one can compare how I describe them.

If you wish to disagree with me fine. I think calling me a liar is out of line. But after describing various outcomes of test results (which Summers attributes to biology) he goes on to say:

Summers:
"So my sense is that the unfortunate truth-I would far prefer to believe something else, because it would be easier to address what is surely a serious social problem if something else were true-is that the combination of the high-powered job hypothesis and the differing variances probably explains a fair amount of this problem."

Later in the speech he cites Becker's analysis of discrimination (which in fact dismissed discrimination as a significant factor for African Americans).

As an economist who has read some of this literature I think what Summers is saying is very clear. He is repeating Gary Becker's thesis that observed differences in labor market outcomes are due essentially to a biologically innate "taste" for specific jobs based on biologically innate differences in abilities. In short, he biologizes inequality. He mentions only in passing Claudia Goldin's work on occupational choice and entirely ignores the voluminous literature in labor economics on gender and race discrimination.

Again, as I said-the reaction to hims was over the top. Beckers' ideas are worth discussing without having people who advocate them being shouted down. Hopkins' reaction was especially counterproductive. There is a lot more I could say about Becker-but I think that would be going too off topic.

I just do not buy the hypothesis that Summers was being scientific and objective, while all his critics were simply emotionalistic. In fact, the more I read Summers full text the more negative my reacions become. This kind of shooting in the dark only makes it more difficult for people who think that biology does matter, but who oppose biologizing inequality to talk to our colleagues who are quick to argue that any discussion of biology automatically leads to biologizing inequality. There is a pseudo-scientific agenda here-that of misusing research into human behavior and biology- and it is being pumped continuously by the right.

Flint · 12 July 2005

I've always enjoyed reading those studies where newborns are dressed in blue or pink and pushed around in carriages through public places, while the reactions of people are noted. Their behaviors are hilariously different, and emphasize quite powerfully that the socialization of sex differences starts right from the moment of birth. By the time the child has gone through enough years of public school to encounter "generic" aptitude tests, these socialization disparities have had plenty of time to influence the children enough to muddy any possible conclusions about "biological" differences in abilities, interests and preferences. Not to say that these differences aren't "real" by this time, only that their underlying causes can no longer be reliably extracted.

Surely there can be mental (brain function) differences as biological as reproductive differences between the sexes. I just don't think we have tools currently capable of isolating them.

steve · 12 July 2005

Nancy Hopkins, a biologist at Massachusetts Institute of Technology, walked out on Summers' talk, saying later that if she hadn't left, "I would've either blacked out or thrown up."

She didn't specify what the ailment was, but I suspect The Vapors.

steve · 12 July 2005

BTW, the best southern accent in which to read the end of that last sentence, if you have your choice, is the one in Valdosta, Georgia.

Mike S. · 12 July 2005

I've always enjoyed reading those studies where newborns are dressed in blue or pink and pushed around in carriages through public places, while the reactions of people are noted. Their behaviors are hilariously different, and emphasize quite powerfully that the socialization of sex differences starts right from the moment of birth.

— Flint
And I've always enjoyed the stories of people who try to give small boys dolls and small girls dump trucks in an effort to avoid said "socialization of sex differences", and the boys end up ripping off the limbs of the dolls and/or using them as pretend guns, while the girls turn the dump truck into a baby carriage. To anyone who has spent any time observing small children it is patently obvious that there are inherent behavioral differences between males and females.

Surely there can be mental (brain function) differences as biological as reproductive differences between the sexes. I just don't think we have tools currently capable of isolating them.

The question isn't whether such differences can be "isolated", whatever that means - it's whether they exist. The feminist dogma states that men and women are equivalent, period. Any differences in outcome must be a result of discrimination - inherent biology or different choices (which are influenced by biology) are not acceptable answers to the question, in their minds.

Firstly, of course everybody knows that individuals differ in abilities, perceptions, etc. The issue before us is whether or not when we compare population of individuals 1 and population of individuals 2, whether or not there is a mean difference between the two populations. That we need to engage in population thinking rather than a) essentialistic thinking and b) static comparisons of individuals is a basic point of modern evolutionary thinking.

— Chip Poirot
The issue is whether the tails on the distributions are different, not whether the means or medians are. And Summers point was exactly a statistical one, whether it was poorly framed or not. He wasn't being essentialistic. I'm not sure what you mean by b), but attributing general properties of a group to a particular individual is a common aspect of human nature - we all do it.

but who oppose biologizing inequality

What does this mean, exactly? I infer that it means justifying inequality based upon biology, i.e. some form of social Darwinism. But that is not what Summers was trying to do, and not generally speaking what this issue is about. The question is, does the difference in men and women's biology, statistically speaking, result in different numbers of men and women in various professions, including the natural sciences? As Flint says, it's not easy to address the question, because there are so many complex interactions involved (one of which is discrimination, whether overt or subconscious). But the problem is that certain elements of the left, who are particularly prominent in academia, won't even address or consider the question. A final point on the socialization of sex differences - how do we "isolate" this as a purely social phenomenon (which is presumably amenable to "correction")? That is, Flint says we can't isolate the effects of biological differences in male and female brains, but we also can't isolate social habits and patterns from the underlying biology. Many of the socialization habits have links to biological and evolutionary pressures, and cannot simply be changed through education.

Flint · 12 July 2005

Mike S.

If you're not careful, your position will bear an eerie similarity to those who look at life, wave their arms in helpless frustration at the blindness of everyone else, and sputter" but...but...but design is obvious!" You write "it is patently obvious that there are inherent behavioral differences between males and females." See the similarity? You write categorically "Many of the socialization habits have links to biological and evolutionary pressures"? See the similarity?

Yes, I readily agree that those who simply declare that "any differences in outcome must be a result of discrimination" are, like yourself, stating a policy position, not related to biology in any way whose proximate cause has been identified. Newborns (less than a few months old) have never even HEARD of guns or baby carriages. They can't yet even focus their eyes very well, much leas understand the abstract symbols those toys represent. Yet they are exposed to this kind of sex differentiation every day until they ARE old enough for behaviors to vary.

And so as I said, any actual biological differences in the brain that might translate into different interests and aptitudes are currently beyond us. I personally doubt that any such differences become "real" just because we might insist even louder that they are "patently obvious". The differences at the age you speak of are indeed obvious. The nature of those differences is far from obvious. Ruling biology either in or out at this time is a statement of preference, not a statement of knowledge.

My own policy position (as arbitrary as anyone's but does anyone want to bet against me?) is that the influence of exposure and education is far more responsible than the influence of biology for variation in these areas. If we could do controlled experiments, raising a dozen randomly chosen male and a dozen female newborns limiting their exposure to the current "opposite sex" expectations, I'd bet we'd see the boys pushing the baby carriages and the girls shooting the guns. I expect we will discover that biology plays little to no role in this regard.

And I think it's fairly well established that the policy of declaring women and men to be equals in traditionally male-dominated areas (from combat to championship bridge to the cutting edge of science) has had an effect. I'm only sad that it happened so recently -- I work with 50 engineers, only one of them female. She's recognized as one of the best, but more would sure be welcome.

Chip Poirot · 12 July 2005

I don't know what Summers' "intent" was in his statements. I assume his intent was, as he stated, to provoke discussion. But, by citing Becker Summers showed me what his ideological bias was. I don't think Becker's "intent" is to justify inequality. I simply think that his ideology (Nobel Prize notwithstanding) has led him down a particularly dogmatic view of labor markets and discrimination that is more obscurantist than scientific. I think the net effect is ex post facto ideological justification of the status quo and bad science. Becker resorts to biology as Deus ex machina to explain what he views as exogenously given "tastes" of people for particular choices. In effect, people according to Becker and Summers get the jobs in the labor markets they deserve-it is not because of social power, caste distinctions, socialization-because by definition according to Summers and Becker these factors are ruled out of consideration since "rational" market forces are assumed to "trump" the "irrational" blindness of social discrimination. Thus inequality is biologized.

Secondly, the problem with all these tests is that we still do not understand a) what they really are measuring (or trying to measure) b) the accuracy of what they are not sure they are measuring c) other factors that impinge on the tests and d) the extent to which many other factors may render some elusive quantified measure of "ability" in a particular area irrelevant in outcomes.

I do suspect that men and women differ in specific abilities at the tail end of the distributions (with a lot of overlap). But what I don't know is what these abilities are, really how to measure them, or how they translate into labor market outcomes, or how much (or little) socialization reinforces or undermines biology.

Undergraduate genetics students learn that outcomes are a product of a complex interaction of genetic and environmental factors, and that genetic factors are immensely complex.

So why oh why do we continue to get this harangue about biologically determined inequality in capacities as the primary factor in observed labor market outcomes. This is just pure post hoc ergo propter hoc reasoning and it is what gives the strong adaptationist program a bad name. And I think of myself as a pretty strong advocate for adaptationism.

Mike S. · 12 July 2005

I do suspect that men and women differ in specific abilities at the tail end of the distributions (with a lot of overlap). But what I don't know is what these abilities are, really how to measure them, or how they translate into labor market outcomes, or how much (or little) socialization reinforces or undermines biology.

— Chip
My understanding is that this is precisely what Summers' was saying we should do more research on.

My own policy position (as arbitrary as anyone's but does anyone want to bet against me?) is that the influence of exposure and education is far more responsible than the influence of biology for variation in these areas. If we could do controlled experiments, raising a dozen randomly chosen male and a dozen female newborns limiting their exposure to the current "opposite sex" expectations, I'd bet we'd see the boys pushing the baby carriages and the girls shooting the guns. I expect we will discover that biology plays little to no role in this regard.

— Flint
What is the underlying basis for this position, and for the assumptions about the outcome of the experiment? I fail to see, as a general assumption, how you can avoid the conclusion that evolution has shaped different instinctive behaviors for males and females. I'd be highly surprised if you denied this is the case for birds or cats or monkeys - why would you doubt that it applies to humans, as well? I agree that it's difficult to be highly precise about this, and that it's incorrect to apply any generalizations to any given individual, but that doesn't abrogate the general argument.

And I think it's fairly well established that the policy of declaring women and men to be equals in traditionally male-dominated areas (from combat to championship bridge to the cutting edge of science) has had an effect. I'm only sad that it happened so recently -- I work with 50 engineers, only one of them female. She's recognized as one of the best, but more would sure be welcome.

What you are talking about is going from complete exclusion to a fair(er) playing field. It's one thing to say that no women at all are allowed to be scientists, or engineers, quite another to say that given the same opportunities, equal numbers of women and men will end up being engineers. For example, what if there's a woman who is (or would be given the right training) just as good an engineer as the one you work with, but has decided that she would rather be a stay-at-home mom than an engineer? That would be a choice she made, not discrimination, and it would be in part due to biological factors. Do you doubt that if you took 1000 equally talented male and female engineers that more females than males would make choices other than working full time as an engineer?

Fraser · 13 July 2005

ts, while Summers did say he was making hypotheses, not firm statements, he's also quite definite that he believes his hypotheses are facts (or so he says in the transcript), not just idle intellectual speculation.

And while the woman who said she wanted to vomit got the most press, most of the subsequent discussion was pretty rational (certainly more so than some of the conservative pundits trying to spin it).

My own objection to Summers is that even if there is genetic bias, that hardly eliminates or disproves discrimination. There are plenty of accounts of women busting through into predominantly male fields and being treated like dirt (Frances Connelly's "Walking Out on the Boys" is a good example) for their gender.

As fore the volokh piece, it really bugs me that the writer claimed the "incest taboo" is one of the things about which mainstream science has no dispute. The term "taboo" in this context creeps me out: The implication is incest isn't really bad, it's just something we resist because of biology, rather than, say, it's a brutal form of rape (in the vast majority of cases) that should repulse any decent human being. The thought that fathers would jump their daughters all the time without the "taboo"--because, you know, everyone has a good time--that's just twisted.

Mike S. · 13 July 2005

As fore the volokh piece, it really bugs me that the writer claimed the "incest taboo" is one of the things about which mainstream science has no dispute. The term "taboo" in this context creeps me out: The implication is incest isn't really bad, it's just something we resist because of biology, rather than, say, it's a brutal form of rape (in the vast majority of cases) that should repulse any decent human being. The thought that fathers would jump their daughters all the time without the "taboo"--because, you know, everyone has a good time--that's just twisted.

High-larious. Zywicki was saying that the incest taboo is a well-established principle of evolutionary psychology, not that he thinks the taboo is irrational or bad, or that incest is a good idea.

My own objection to Summers is that even if there is genetic bias, that hardly eliminates or disproves discrimination.

He didn't say he did. He included discrimination on his list of reasons for the gender disparity. He was disputing the notion that it is the only reason for the disparity, or that it is the predominant reason. Arguing with that proposition is fine, but that is not what the Harvard faculty who voted no confidence were doing - they were playing power games, and trying to enforce the "taboo" against raising certain topics. Unfortunately, they succeeded.

Flint · 13 July 2005

Mike S: Sorry I'm falling behind in my responses. But you raise some points worth answering, I hope:

What is the underlying basis for this position, and for the assumptions about the outcome of the experiment?

The underlying basis is, the human brain seems to be an amazingly flexible organ. Look at the sheer variation in what people have been able to discover, believe, and invent. I seriously doubt that most of this variation is biological in any significant way. Do you suppose Barry Bonds inherited a baseball gene or the functional equivalent? Tiger Woods a golfing gene? Or would you say (as I would) that these capabilities derive partly from athletic ability generally, and partly from intense training in their fields almost since birth?

I fail to see, as a general assumption, how you can avoid the conclusion that evolution has shaped different instinctive behaviors for males and females.

I'm sure it has. The issue here is a matter of proportions. I'm saying that IF there is any difference between the sexes in aptitutes for math, science, or whatever, that difference is insignificant in comparison to the effects of a lifetime of training; it's lost in the noise.

What you are talking about is going from complete exclusion to a fair(er) playing field. It's one thing to say that no women at all are allowed to be scientists, or engineers, quite another to say that given the same opportunities, equal numbers of women and men will end up being engineers.

This is something a little bit different, and worth commenting on. You have switched from a discussion of relative maximum capability to a discussion of whether qualified people would choose to be engineers in the first place. I hope we can agree that social conventions are 100% responsible for career choices. This distinction can be subtle: we cannot know if, given a completely flat playing field, the sexes would differentiate much with respect to specific career choices. My point was that from birth, boys and girls are strongly and explicitly steered in different directions. After 18 years of steering, are we going to conclude that the resulting career choices are uninfluenced by it?

For example, what if there's a woman who is (or would be given the right training) just as good an engineer as the one you work with, but has decided that she would rather be a stay-at-home mom than an engineer? That would be a choice she made, not discrimination, and it would be in part due to biological factors.

Not necessarily. The husband of the one female engineer stays at home, does all the housework, raises the children, and is quite satisfied. There's nothing biological about this: they organized their lives this way because out of college she got the better job, and he found he enjoyed being housewife. It was a financial decision. Once again, I simply deny that these decisions can be considered biological in any discernable way, after a lifetime of steering. A great many people, of both sexes, do what they do for a living because it was expected of them all their lives: to do what their parents did, or what their parents dreamed of. Sometimes they end up liking it, sometimes not. But for most of them, until it was too late they never even *considered* anything else. Biology is basically irrelevant. (And parenthetically, class is NOT irrelevant. I've known many people who think college is for those who put on airs, and are too lazy to get out and work for a living like any honest person does. And they resent the money these lazy people somehow steal from "the system" despite not doing honest sweaty-brow hard work. Biology is once again irrelevant.)

Do you doubt that if you took 1000 equally talented male and female engineers that more females than males would make choices other than working full time as an engineer?

In the US? Not at all. Socialized sex roles would skew the distribution. Note: socialized sex roles. Not biology. To repeat (in case we've lost it because the direction got changed a bit): If I were to draw a "biological mental capabilities curve" for males and females, and then superimpose one onto the other, we'd see close to, but not precisely, 100% overlap. The degree to which those capabilities are actualized is entirely social. Take any random infant, either sex, out of the Borneo jungle and raise him/her to become a tax lawyer, and you'll have an equally competent tax lawyer (or pediatrician, or paleontologist) regardless of sex. Exchange that infant with one from the American upper class, and that person will faithfully replicate the social role expected in Borneo.

Mike S. · 13 July 2005

The underlying basis is, the human brain seems to be an amazingly flexible organ. Look at the sheer variation in what people have been able to discover, believe, and invent. I seriously doubt that most of this variation is biological in any significant way. Do you suppose Barry Bonds inherited a baseball gene or the functional equivalent? Tiger Woods a golfing gene? Or would you say (as I would) that these capabilities derive partly from athletic ability generally, and partly from intense training in their fields almost since birth?

— Flint
Let me make clear that I don't think nature and nuture are separable. I'm not arguing that socialization and other environmental effects have no effects. The position that I'm arguing against, which you seem to largely be defending, is that socialization is the only, or the predominant factor, in career choices. Another point I want to reiterate is that I'm making statistical arguments - they don't necessarily apply to any given individual. The brain is highly flexible - but not infinitely so. But even so, I would argue that men's and women's brains are flexible in different ways. Your statement that the variation in human talents and accomplishments is not biological is remarkable: you don't think that Einstein or Mozart had unique capabilities that the vast majority of human beings don't possess? Barry Bonds and Tiger Woods just make my point about how you can't separate nature and nuture: yes, both required a great deal of training to accomplish what they have. But without their starting genetic material they would never have achieved what they have. If I had practiced golf from the time I was 3 like Tiger did, I would not be the best golfer of all time right now. I might be making a living doing it, but I would not be winning multiple majors. Actually, your statement appears to agree with my position, since you explicitly state the combination of innate and environmental factors. Why doesn't this analysis apply to the career choices of men and women? There, you seem to be arguing for a solely environmental cause.

I'm saying that IF there is any difference between the sexes in aptitutes for math, science, or whatever, that difference is insignificant in comparison to the effects of a lifetime of training; it's lost in the noise.

Once again, I simply deny that these decisions can be considered biological in any discernable way, after a lifetime of steering.

In the US? Not at all. Socialized sex roles would skew the distribution. Note: socialized sex roles. Not biology.

You have no basis for this assertion - it's just your opinion. I don't really have any data to back up my assertion, either, but I'm at least basing my claims on some arguments. You seem to be simply stating assertions without arguing why those assertions are true. I was just wondering why you assert the dominance of socialization in this sphere - you haven't offered any reasons (other than the fact that the brain is flexible), just restated the assertion.

Not necessarily. The husband of the one female engineer stays at home, does all the housework, raises the children, and is quite satisfied. There's nothing biological about this: they organized their lives this way because out of college she got the better job, and he found he enjoyed being housewife. It was a financial decision.

This is an individual case, and you cannot draw statistical conclusions from single data points.

Take any random infant, either sex, out of the Borneo jungle and raise him/her to become a tax lawyer, and you'll have an equally competent tax lawyer (or pediatrician, or paleontologist) regardless of sex. Exchange that infant with one from the American upper class, and that person will faithfully replicate the social role expected in Borneo.

Why do they have to come from Borneo? It's irrelevant where they come from, if you start training them in infancy. But again, the point is not that any given individual is predestined to end up in a particular job, it's that women as a group will tend towards certain careers, and men towards others, in part due to biological differences between the sexes.

This is something a little bit different, and worth commenting on. You have switched from a discussion of relative maximum capability to a discussion of whether qualified people would choose to be engineers in the first place. I hope we can agree that social conventions are 100% responsible for career choices. This distinction can be subtle: we cannot know if, given a completely flat playing field, the sexes would differentiate much with respect to specific career choices. My point was that from birth, boys and girls are strongly and explicitly steered in different directions. After 18 years of steering, are we going to conclude that the resulting career choices are uninfluenced by it?

I wasn't talking about relative maximum capability - the best woman scientists are just as good as the best men scientists, but there are fewer of them in part due to biology. And the reason I talked about choice is that Summers' made the same point. Choice is not a matter of inherent ability, but it is affected by biology. No, I don't agree that social conventions are 100% responsible for career choices. They certainly effect those choices, but not 100%. You didn't really address my question about the biological basis for socialization - you're treating socialization as if it is this distinct thing that bears no relationship to the biology of human beings. I don't think that makes any sense - clearly social aspects of human behavior have been shaped by evolution - how could they not have been? I don't think all aspects of human behavior can be explained by evolution, but it seems silly to deny that our behavior hasn't been shaped by it.

Flint · 13 July 2005

Mike S:

The position that I'm arguing against, which you seem to largely be defending, is that socialization is the only, or the predominant factor, in career choices.

I agree that we can't separate nature and nuture. I began by declaring my position to be no less arbitrary that yours.

Barry Bonds and Tiger Woods just make my point about how you can't separate nature and nuture: yes, both required a great deal of training to accomplish what they have. But without their starting genetic material they would never have achieved what they have.

I think I explained myself poorly. Yes, both are great athletes, and I think that's biological. But could Woods have been the ballplayer and Bonds the golfer? I think so.

Actually, your statement appears to agree with my position, since you explicitly state the combination of innate and environmental factors. Why doesn't this analysis apply to the career choices of men and women? There, you seem to be arguing for a solely environmental cause.

Many women go into professional athletics as well. In fact, the limiting factor seems to be financial, not biological. Where financial rewards are equally available (such as professional tennis) the number of male and female athletes is comparable. Remember, I'm talking about two separate ideas here: career choices, and capability to perform the requirements of that choice.

You have no basis for this assertion - it's just your opinion. I don't really have any data to back up my assertion, either, but I'm at least basing my claims on some arguments. You seem to be simply stating assertions without arguing why those assertions are true. I was just wondering why you assert the dominance of socialization in this sphere - you haven't offered any reasons (other than the fact that the brain is flexible), just restated the assertion.

And that, once again, is why I said my position is no less arbitrary than yours. My evidence is also as indirect as yours: as socialized sex roles have changed, we have seen some fairly large shifts in career choice. Professional athletics for women is one such change, but opportunities in science is another. This all has taken place in the larger context of what conservatives call "the breakdown of the family" -- women leaving the kitchen and joining the workforce. At first as secretaries, then as managers, now as professionals, soldiers and even CEOs. And increasingly the penetration of women into so many formerly male-only roles is regarded as unremarkable. When people suggest Hilary Clinton for President, the suggestion is taken seriously. Imagine 50 (or even 20) years ago! I seriously doubt that female biology has changed in the last couple of generations. All that has changed is the structure of social rewards, openings, and expectations. And I certainly don't sense any consensus that the females filling formerly all-male roles are any less competent. As one of the male contestents said (to those men resentful of Michelle Wie): The competition is open to everyone. She tees it up from the same tees you use. If you don't like it, go out and beat her!

But again, the point is not that any given individual is predestined to end up in a particular job, it's that women as a group will tend towards certain careers, and men towards others, in part due to biological differences between the sexes.

I simply don't think this is biological. That's why I went into more detail about changing sex roles in Western cultures. What "women as a group" have been selecting has been changing rather dramatically, and all it took was a sea change in the direction of equality of access and compensation. Now, I read you as saying that we will sooner or later reach some point where women will for some reason stop taking advantage of equal opportunity, before such opportunites are populated equally by both sexes, for biological reasons not yet in evidence (because opportunity is not yet equal, and socialization is still strongly stereotyped from birth). I would predict based on broad trends easily visible today that where male and female participation is equal, opportunities are equal.

the best woman scientists are just as good as the best men scientists, but there are fewer of them in part due to biology.

I find this confusing. If biology is not influencing their skills, it must be influencing their preferences. That there's something about female biology that makes science less appealing to them. But we see today that there's no difference in the numbers of males and females getting science degrees or populating science classes. Times are changing, and the biological explanations are failing.

You didn't really address my question about the biological basis for socialization

I think it's real, but I can only speculate here as well. Women are without question on average smaller and weaker then men. Women give birth -- the mother is ALWAYS known, but the father is not. My reading is that these clearly biological differences lead directly to very different social roles in primitive societies. I would think that the increasing equality we see in advanced societies happens because it is *possible*. Biology imposes some limitations: only women can bear children or suckle them. Women are generally going to suffer in straight contests of strength (but not necessarily endurance). But I think you should be careful not to extrapolate biological differences to mental capabilities or personal preferences.

Chip Poirot · 14 July 2005

Mike S wrote:

"He (Larry Summers) didn't say he did (attribute all labor market outcomes to biological based definitions). He included discrimination on his list of reasons for the gender disparity. He was disputing the notion that it is the only reason for the disparity, or that it is the predominant reason. Arguing with that proposition is fine, but that is not what the Harvard faculty who voted no confidence were doing - they were playing power games, and trying to enforce the "taboo" against raising certain topics. Unfortunately, they succeeded." (I added the parenthesese for clarification).

No-he did not say that **all** the observed differences were explained by biology. If you go back and read post #37487 and if you follow the link to Summers' full speech http://www.president.harvard.edu/speeches/2005/nber.html
you will see that I fairly represent Summers' position.

He believes that the predominant explanation for labor market outcomes with respect to males and females (at least as far as the academic labor market is concerned) is explained **primarily** by 1) biological differences in the abilities of men and women and 2)women's "tastes" for home life over lab work-perhaps itself a function of biology. He views overt labor market discrimination as an insignificant (statistically speaking) factor.

Again, if you go back and read my post 37487 you will get a clear picture of what I said.

Mike S. · 14 July 2005

Here's a timely study that backs up my position (with actual data!).

Now, I read you as saying that we will sooner or later reach some point where women will for some reason stop taking advantage of equal opportunity, before such opportunites are populated equally by both sexes, for biological reasons not yet in evidence (because opportunity is not yet equal, and socialization is still strongly stereotyped from birth). I would predict based on broad trends easily visible today that where male and female participation is equal, opportunities are equal.

— Flint
In certain careers or fields, yes, I think there will always be fewer women than men, given equal opportunities (your last statement is backwards - of course where male and female participation are equal, opportunities are equal. The question is whether we can have equal opportunities, yet unequal participation.)

I find this confusing. If biology is not influencing their skills, it must be influencing their preferences. That there's something about female biology that makes science less appealing to them. But we see today that there's no difference in the numbers of males and females getting science degrees or populating science classes. Times are changing, and the biological explanations are failing.

You find it confusing because you don't seem to understand statistical arguments. Biology can influence the relative numbers of men and women that, e.g., are world-class in math. Socialization can change this gap one way or the other, but it's unlikely to eliminate it. I think you are wrong about the number of males and females getting higher degrees - I think it's fairly even at the undergraduate level, but grows more disparate as you move up from there. And in certainl fields, like physics, math, and computer science, it's not equal at the undergrad level. But the choice argument is also part of it: even if we had, say, equal numbers of women and men earning PhD's in physics, there will still be fewer women than men who want a career as a professor in Physics. Generally speaking, men will always be more willing/more attracted to jobs that require long hours and/or lots of intense competition, while women will always be more attracted to jobs with fewer hours/more flexibility/less intense competition.

This all has taken place in the larger context of what conservatives call "the breakdown of the family" -- women leaving the kitchen and joining the workforce.

I don't remember where I saw it, but there was an article recently about how the older feminists are disappointed with the younger generation of feminists, because a lot of them take the "choice" matra seriously: i.e. they choose to be a stay at home mom, or to work less and spend more time with their children. Whereas to the Gloria Steinem's of the world, "choice" means that women can choose to be just like men and compete in the corporate world and become CEO's, etc. - choosing to stay at home isn't really an appropriate choice, in their view. Now, the feminists deserve credit for expanding the boundaries of what society thought women were capable of doing. But the fact that Carly Fiorina can become CEO of Hewlett-Packard, when she couldn't have 30 years ago, is not the same thing as saying that until we have equal numbers of male and female CEO's, there is overt discrimination going on against women.

2)women's "tastes" for home life over lab work-perhaps itself a function of biology.

— Chip Poirot
It doesn't have to be home-life over lab work - a woman might choose to go after a non-tenure track research faculty position rather than a tenure-track one, because the latter offers more flexibility. She still likes doing lab work, but she doesn't want to have to work 60 or more hours a week in order to get tenure.

He views overt labor market discrimination as an insignificant (statistically speaking) factor.

Is there any scenario you can imagine where unequal numbers of female and male professors is due to anything besides overt discrimination? That is, is there any way for us to ever come to a resolution on this discussion? It seems to me that the different numbers will always be taken as prima facie evidence for discrimination. I'm certainly aware that people will irrationally discriminate, even when it is against their self-interest (due to biology!), but if what you and Flint are saying is correct, why aren't there any universities taking advantage of the situation and hiring all the talented female scientists that are being discriminated against? Surely you don't think university administators are insufficiently committed to affirmative action in this day and age, do you? In order for your argument to be correct, there would have to be a massive, nationwide, level of irrational discrimination going on. I simply don't find this plausible.

Mike S. · 14 July 2005

A couple more brief points.

On the Tiger Woods/Barry Bonds question, the issue is not whether Woods could have been a baseball player and Bonds a golfer, since both jobs require eye-hand coordination and swinging a stick. That's like saying whether someone could have been a good electrical engineer or physicist. A more apt analogy would be whether Woods or Bonds could have been an outstanding scientist, while some Nobel Prize winner could have been a multimillionire athlete.

It is not in dispute that biology, including evolution, has produced different average physical attributes for men and women (i.e. strength). Any given woman may be stronger than any given man, but on average men are stronger. The brain is a physical organ, and has clearly been shaped by evolution. Why is it so unthinkable that this has resulted in different average behavioral or cognitive attributes for men and women? That's basically the extent of my point, and I don't see how it can reasonably be refuted. The issue of the relative effects of socialization, discrimination, and biology is more complicated and not easily resolved. But all I'm trying to get is an acknowledgement that biology plays a role in career choices. If men and women's brains are different, I fail to see how it could not play some role.

Chip Poirot · 14 July 2005

Mike S.

. Think I'll stop. It hurts. If you go back and read my post #37487 and the link to Summers' speech http://www.president.harvard.edu/speeches/2005/nber.html I really do think that my point will be more clear. That is because I believe I made it clearly the very first time. But since I have a bottle of Tylenol handy I'll try one more time.

1. I too reject the hypothesis of overt discrimination as the explanation for the existince of different outcomes in Harvard's science department. However, my reasons for doing so are vastly different from Summers' arguments. Summers' relies on Becker's analysis that attempted to show that labor market discrimination was unnstable in competitive markets. In my judgement, by normal scientific standards, Becker's theoretical position must be judged as a "degenerative problem shift" and simply put, does not save the phenomena. I think overt discrimination does not exist because legal and other institution factors now make overt discrimination prohibitive and Harvard (like any other University) has umpteen levels to deal with EEOC violations. Of course individual cases of gender bias can still occur.

2. Summers' thinks that women's "tastes" for home life over tenure track jobs is a product of biology. So too does Gary Becker. For both of them biology explains the differences in male/femal performance and biology explains the formation of different "tastes". It is "turtles all the way done".

I am arguing that even if women have any "innate" taste for homework over tenure track jobs, that is considerably augmented by:
1) socialization and other institutional factors;
2) historical patterns of labor market segmentation and occupational segregation that are path dependent remnants of a period when overt discrimination was stable;
3) social structures that put much tighter constraints on female choice with respect to male choice when it comes to balancing home and work responsibilities;

I am arguing that I would expect men and women to have **some** biologically different cogntive styles at a population level, but with considerable overlap. However, we do not have any real strong knowledge of what these are or how they might effect abilities. Let's take a common stereotype that might have a grain of truth as a generalization. Women are more detail oriented, men tend to be more abstract thinkers. Now, being detailed oriented in many fields of science will get you very, very far. In some fields it may be more important than abstract thinking. In other cases, abstract thinking may win out. But what it comes down to is we don't have enough evidence to assert that men's and women's different overall cognitive approaches really handicap one gender in relation to another.

Secondly, as any college sophomore genetics student knows: IT is gene-environment interactions that matter for development-not genes alone for chrissake! So why do people continue to use this bullshit "genes alone" shorthand? It is just plain sloppy reasoning.

What reason do we have to believe that with considerable emphasis placed on math science education for girls and with encouragement they cannot do as well as men? None whatsoever.

So my explanation for the observed outcomes in math and science between men and women is:
1. Socialization patterns;
2. Cultural expectations with respect to child rearing;
3. A mismatch between the needs of people who want to emphasize family responsibilities rather than pursuit of career goals;
4. Historical legacies of overt discrimination.

And I am not saying that there are no biologically based differences. Adjustment for these factors might not yield 50-50 ratios in every field. But that is no reason to not to try to improve the situation rather than relying on degenerative research programs in economics.

To what extent Harvard-or any other institution-can, should, does attempt to accomadate these issues is another question.

Now, have I at least made what I am saying clear?

Flint · 14 July 2005

Mike S: You are still using your conclusions as your assumptions, at least from my perspective. I'll try to explain. First, thanks for the link. I noticed that it started out by speculating that brain differences between the sexes might explain behavioral differences and shape preferences. But then it goes on to note that "there are also social pressures that cause us to behave along gender lines." It says "not all women have what scientists now call a "female brain" and not all men have a male one. Some people have "balanced" brains, which have an equal measure of male and female characteristics, and some even have brain types opposite to their gender." So I was hoping to know how a "brain type" was identified. After all, if "brain type" is defined in behavioral terms, then we have a clearly circular argument. Sadly, the article didn't specify how this label was attached. Also, I hope we both understand that I agree it's almost inevitable that there are biological brain differences between the sexes. I'm disputing that we can use observed behavioral differences to identify and quantify such biological differences within a social context. Given true equality (both equal opportunity, and a lifetime of socialization to this effect), what gender distributions would we see across different specialties?

In certain careers or fields, yes, I think there will always be fewer women than men, given equal opportunities (your last statement is backwards - of course where male and female participation are equal, opportunities are equal. The question is whether we can have equal opportunities, yet unequal participation.)

No, my last statement was very carefully NOT backwards. Here's what I meant: Let's say we have a field where opportunities and expectations clearly favor one sex (let's say, women). Now let's say we notice equal participation in this field. Since the playing field is skewed toward women, yet participation is equal, we could conclude that men more than women prefer this field, and work harder to overcome the barriers. In other words, equal participation implies equal opportunity if and only if there is no underlying biological difference with respect to this field. And so I phrased my statement as a statistical conclusion, to say I didn't accept that this would be so, and that IF we saw equal participation, THEN we could conclude equal opportunity ipso facto. But I also expect this would be true of some fields and not others.

You find it confusing because you don't seem to understand statistical arguments.

Well, I took enough statistics courses to work as a survey researcher for a few years, and construct sampling methods. So maybe this isn't the problem.

Biology can influence the relative numbers of men and women that, e.g., are world-class in math. Socialization can change this gap one way or the other, but it's unlikely to eliminate it.

This may or may not be true, but currently you are stating a policy position, not really testable.

But the choice argument is also part of it: even if we had, say, equal numbers of women and men earning PhD's in physics, there will still be fewer women than men who want a career as a professor in Physics.

I would doubt this. Currently, I think the barriers to becoming a PhD in physics are higher for women. But it's a difficult goal to reach for anybody. I don't understand why you think someone would make that effort simply to drop the career. So perhaps you are saying that female PhDs would be more likely to prefer working in industry to working in academia? Why? (and let's not rule out the possibility that barriers to entering academia might be higher for women)

Generally speaking, men will always be more willing/more attracted to jobs that require long hours and/or lots of intense competition, while women will always be more attracted to jobs with fewer hours/more flexibility/less intense competition.

I must admit, this sounds like wishful thinking, and what crosses my mind is not whether it is objectively true but why you would WANT it to be true. It's a truism that housewives never get a day off.

But the fact that Carly Fiorina can become CEO of Hewlett-Packard, when she couldn't have 30 years ago, is not the same thing as saying that until we have equal numbers of male and female CEO's, there is overt discrimination going on against women.

This seems a difficult point. Carly Fiorina stood out for being so vanishingly unusual. Surely something non-biological is causing nearly all Fortune 500 CEOs to be male? There is a social system operating, that's damn near impossible for women to break through - a thick glass ceiling. But I understand you to be saying that as the percentage of female CEOs of large corporations rises, we can understand this to be a relaxation of prior social restrictions only up to a certain point. After that (where? 20%? 40%?) biology cuts in.

if what you and Flint are saying is correct, why aren't there any universities taking advantage of the situation and hiring all the talented female scientists that are being discriminated against?

Because the problem doesn't lie there. This is like asking why colleges don't preferentially accept blacks who are being discriminated against. In both cases, the answer is, because the discrimination (starting from birth) has kept the number of qualified applicants artifically low. It has prevented potentially talented female (and black) scientists from becoming educated scientists. In fact (a politically unpopular fact in some circles), just the opposite has been happening: affirmative action has in practice translated into preferentially hiring less qualified people (sometimes FAR less qualified) in an attempt to force a break in the cycle, trading the loss of some competence today in the hopes of far greater competence in future candidates. We're back to the issue of whether we should be focusing on the finish line or the starting line. You are looking at the finish line, saying "look how few women cross the line, they must be poor runners for biological reasons" and I am looking at the starting line and saying "no wonder so few women finish - they never get to start!" But do they WANT to enter into all these races? Probably more do than get the chance, but surely fewer women want to enter than men. But are their wants biologically or socially influenced, and to what degree by either? Consider something only tangentially related, for some perspective (maybe). Wave after wave of European immigrants entered the US, and each wave was resented and detested by those already here. And each wave initially lived packed like sardines into poverty and squalor, but by the third generation had assimilated. The old country was forgotten, the old language fallen into disuse, the grandchildren intermarried. Contrast this with women and blacks. The distinction isn't necessarily biological, although gender and skin color are surely biological. The distinction is, these groups can't blend. They are instantly, visibly different. And it seems inherent in human nature to institutionalize these visible differences into pervasive social conventions. A little historical study of blacks in America is enlightening: even today (but MUCH more in the past), whites have regarded blacks as "congenitally" stupid, lazy, and criminal. Their biological inferiority (except in athletics, where performances are evaluated by non-subjective yardsticks) has been taken for granted, to the point where most studies have been attempts to explain this inferiority. And sure enough, those denied the opportunity for education scored poorly on tests, ratifying the decision not to bother educating them in the first place. The moral is, declaring mental differences between males and females is powerfully self-fulfilling, irrespective of whether it is true. And because it is self-fulfilling, any genuine underlying biological differences are exaggerated beyond recognition. And for this reason, I favor declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes. To the degree (and in the directions) that this policy contradicts the reality, we will see unequal sexual representation. But we can then know that this inequality isn't because we engineered it through social convention.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

How do you propose to verify that "declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes" has eliminated all differences in male and female behavior caused by social influences? It seems rather unlikely that it will have that effect.

The case for biological causes of gender differences in mental traits rests on more than just observations of gender differences in behavior, of course. But observed differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures are likely to be caused in part at least by biological gender differences.

ts · 14 July 2005

ts, while Summers did say he was making hypotheses, not firm statements, he's also quite definite that he believes his hypotheses are facts (or so he says in the transcript), not just idle intellectual speculation.

He says his hypotheses are *based* on facts; there's a huge difference. Your bizarre assertion suggests that you lack fundamental understanding of such basics of science as facts and hypotheses, as well as poor reading comprehension.

ts · 14 July 2005

I respond one more time only because of ts' unprovoked resort to personal insults.

That's rich. I was provoked to call you a liar for this false ad hominem comment, which you repeated twice:

You are reading things into my posts that are not there.

ts · 14 July 2005

Apparently Summers' crime is to offer hypotheses he favors, claims that he thinks are well supported and most likely true, rather than offering hypotheses that he thinks are false. I will say it again; the claim that "His mistake was offering this as established fact" is a lie; he did not offer established fact, but rather claims that, *in his view*, are well supported, if not inescapable, and he puts forth the challenge of rebutting the claims. He makes this very explicit:

Let me just conclude by saying that I've given you my best guesses after a fair amount of reading the literature and a lot of talking to people. They may be all wrong. I will have served my purpose if I have provoked thought on this question and provoked the marshalling of evidence to contradict what I have said.

That's the opposite of offering something as established fact, and the charge that he did is fundamentally anti-intellectual, as it attacks the standard mode of intllectual debate.

ts · 14 July 2005

Flint: How do you propose to verify that "declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes" has eliminated all differences in male and female behavior caused by social influences?

The same way as verifying that the area of a circle with 1 inch radius is 3 square inches after legislating that pi = 3, no doubt.

ts · 14 July 2005

I don't dispute Summers' right to engage in speculative statements or his right to make generally provocative statements. Nor do I think all the response to him was entirely well thought out either. But I don't buy the premise that he is a victim of the PC thought police. More like a victim of foot in mouth disease.

This false dichotomy is also outrageously anti-intellectual. Regardless of how shoddy Summers' logic may have been or how impolitic and ill-judged his actions, it is clear fact that he *was* set upon by the PC thought police. The implicit claim here is that Summers deserved what he got.

Flint · 14 July 2005

Don P:

How do you propose to verify that "declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes" has eliminated all differences in male and female behavior caused by social influences? It seems rather unlikely that it will have that effect.

I certainly wouldn't expect social influences to just up and vanish simply because a policy is declared that we would henceforth pretend to be blind to ALL differences. But remember my race metaphor. This policy, over time, results in everyone showing up at the starting line who wishes to enter the race. Over more time, it results in more people actually realizing that they might wish to enter the race, rather than be convinced from birth that they are unqualified to compete.

The case for biological causes of gender differences in mental traits rests on more than just observations of gender differences in behavior, of course. But observed differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures are likely to be caused in part at least by biological gender differences.

But the same was said for many centuries about mental traits being due to racial differences. These differences were obvious, large, persistent, and more-or-less common (find me a competent black African government). But by observation, the most pejorative differences faded away as opportunities and expectations moved toward balancing out. The point seems fairly straightforward: large, persistent, common cultural roles and attitudes exist, and have profound effects. Once again, I am NOT saying there are no biological differences. I'm saying the social influences are so pervasive that the biological factor in these differences can't be quantified. A public policy pretending no differences exist at all of course can't erase genuine biological differences. What it can do is move a bit in the direction of neutralizing social barriers, many of which might be artificial. Incidentally, I find no fault with Summers. I disagree with his opinion, but I welcome any opportunity to put that opinion to a real test, which I think is necessarily a long-term test spearheaded by social policy. I don't think the evidence to contradict what he said exists today. Consider that the Brown case was in 1954, and 50 years later we are seeing a segregated, stereotyped, highly institutionalized social and cultural divide narrowed only in a few places. Yet where it IS narrowed, we see that the "biological mental differences" aren't in evidence. (And I'm betting that there really are biological mental differences between men and women in science and math, but the differences are not "better" and "worse" or even "more competitive" and "less competitive". I think they sexes think a bit differently, and can bring different strengths to bear within all these areas.)

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

I certainly wouldn't expect social influences to just up and vanish simply because a policy is declared that we would henceforth pretend to be blind to ALL differences.

Right. So it's useless for the purpose you suggested. It wouldn't allow you to eliminate socially-caused differences from your analysis.

This policy, over time, results in everyone showing up at the starting line who wishes to enter the race. Over more time, it results in more people actually realizing that they might wish to enter the race, rather than be convinced from birth that they are unqualified to compete.

But it might also induce to "enter the race" people who would not choose to do so if they were free of social influences. Your policy might simply replace the (alleged) socially-caused underrepresentation of women in science and engineering, with a socially-caused overrepresentation of women by promoting the possibly-incorrect factual claim that men and women are equally good at or partial to that type of career. Social engineering of gender behavior can work both ways, you know. I think that making factual claims that we do not know to be true, and that we have considerable evidence are false, is bad public policy in any context.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flink:

But the same was said for many centuries about mental traits being due to racial differences. These differences were obvious, large, persistent, and more-or-less common

Huh? Do please produce your evidence of observed racial differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures. If there were such evidence, it would indeed imply biological racial differences. I deny that there is any such evidence.

ts · 14 July 2005

The case for biological causes of gender differences in mental traits rests on more than just observations of gender differences in behavior, of course. But observed differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures are likely to be caused in part at least by biological gender differences. But the same was said for many centuries about mental traits being due to racial differences.

Many things have been said at many times, but pointing that out is not a valid form of refutation, especially when the analogy is blatantly inapplicable. An argument from "blacks don't run governments" to "blacks can't run governments" is rather different than an argument from "men don't bear children" to "men can't bear children". The idea of equating men and women as a matter of policy is absurd not just because one cannot legislate factual claims, but because it's counter-effective. It's akin to the right wing notion of a "color-blind" society that ignores existing disparities and attempts to interfere in addressing them. A number of feminist theorists have long argued that, to have meaningful equality, gender differences must be recognized in the law. See, e.g., http://www.law.ucla.edu/home/index.asp?page=599

ts · 14 July 2005

"But the same was said for many centuries about mental traits being due to racial differences. These differences were obvious, large, persistent, and more-or-less common" Huh? Do please produce your evidence of observed racial differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures. If there were such evidence, it would indeed imply biological racial differences. I deny that there is any such evidence.

Flint's argument, such as it is, seems to be that the falsity of claims about race imply the falsity of similar statements about gender. No wonder he wants to legislate truth.

Flint · 14 July 2005

Don P:

Right. So it's useless for the purpose you suggested.

How can you conclude this from what I said? I'm looking at a long journey. You ask if a single step will get me there, and I say no, it takes a long of steps over a long time. And you conclude that since no single step comprises the entire journey, steps per se are useless. The only justification I can find for this conclusion is that it already existed, and my answer was basically ignored. Nor do I think we can EVER eliminate socially-caused differences. But perfect is the enemy of excellent. Should we make no effort to improve, simply because we can never reach perfection?

But it might also induce to "enter the race" people who would not choose to do so if they were free of social influences. Your policy might simply replace the (alleged) socially-caused underrepresentation of women in science and engineering, with a socially-caused overrepresentation of women by promoting the possibly-incorrect factual claim that men and women are equally good at or partial to that type of career.

Yes, this is a risk. Having an opportunity available that was once closed, might tempt unqualified people to attempt it. But I admit I would rather unqualified people run the race poorly, than be disqualified before they start.

I think that making factual claims that we do not know to be true, and that we have considerable evidence are false, is bad public policy in any context.

What we have, of course, is a tradeff. We do not know that women are biologically inferior at science, but we nonetheless followed a social policy of discouraging them from making the attempt. So what I am proposing is not making access for women *easier* than for men, but simply leveling the playing field in some ways.

Do please produce your evidence of observed racial differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures.

As ts points out, this was said to be true. But saying so, as I wrote, tends to be self-fulfilling where what is said is accepted as true whether it is or not. ts:

Flint's argument, such as it is, seems to be that the falsity of claims about race imply the falsity of similar statements about gender. No wonder he wants to legislate truth.

This bears very little if any resemblance to anything I have said. But I think you know that. The analogy with race was an attempt to illustrate that stereotypes can be self-fulfilling. My opinion is that women's preferences and limitations have been stereotyped with similar ramifications. I think the evidence is fairly solid that racial stereotypes WERE false, even though the stereotypes accurately described the conditions and performances of the stereotyped race at the time. Can changing expected sex roles result in actual improvement in female representation and performance in formerly male-dominated professions? I think the experiment is worth a try. But of course I'm not trying to "legislate truth" in any way. I'm trying to legislate equal opportunity to try, not equal results. Policies that are carefully gender-neutral where gender plays no self-evident role (such as bearing children) are not "legislating truth", and probably are exactly the opposite: their goal is to let the underlying biological truth peek through the social conventions.

ts · 14 July 2005

This bears very little if any resemblance to anything I have said. But I think you know that.

Sorry, but that sort of ad hominem won't wash. I did and do believe that what I wrote is an accurate summary of the *true* implications of your statement.

ts · 14 July 2005

As ts points out, this was said to be true. But saying so, as I wrote, tends to be self-fulfilling where what is said is accepted as true whether it is or not.

What I pointed out is that this is not a valid form of argument. A valid form of argument would be to actually show that a statement is false, not to indulge in these sorts of scare tactics.

Flint · 14 July 2005

Sorry, but that sort of ad hominem won't wash. I did and do believe that what I wrote is an accurate summary of the *true* implications of your statement.

I did and do believe that your primary if not sole interest in posting to this thread is to show that you have the biggest dick on the block. I have seen every effort to avoid good faith in all you have written. I dispute that deliberate misrepresentations, backed by pious whines and protestations, is a valid form of argument either. Do you deny that our society imposes sex roles in countless ways? Do you deny that this has influence on our perceptions and understandings? My argument is been that these things happen, and that they mean something.

ts · 14 July 2005

I did and do believe that your primary if not sole interest in posting to this thread is to show that you have the biggest dick on the block. I have seen every effort to avoid good faith in all you have written.

Well, no, you haven't, but I've come to expect these sorts of ad hominems from you.

Do you deny that our society imposes sex roles in countless ways? Do you deny that this has influence on our perceptions and understandings?

Not at all, nor have I said anything to imply that I do.

My argument is been that these things happen, and that they mean something.

This is not an uncommon tactic, to characterize one's own arguments is merely a vague undisputed generality, as if none of the points at issue had ever been presented.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

How can you conclude this from what I said?

I already explained it to you. You said that your policy would allow us to "know that this [gender] inequality isn't because we engineered it through social convention." It would allow no such thing. You cannot eliminate socially-caused gender differences in behavior simply by declaring as a matter of public policy that there are no mental differences between men and women.

Yes, this is a risk. Having an opportunity available that was once closed, might tempt unqualified people to attempt it.

Sorry, but this bait-and-switch isn't going to work either. The policy proposal you made and that I am critiquing is not giving people opportunities that they were previously denied, but "declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." That is the proposal you made, and that is the proposal that I am saying would be useless for your claimed purpose, and bad policy for the other reasons I explained.

What we have, of course, is a tradeff. We do not know that women are biologically inferior at science, but we nonetheless followed a social policy of discouraging them from making the attempt. So what I am proposing is not making access for women *easier* than for men, but simply leveling the playing field in some ways.

No, you didn't propose "levelling the playing field," you proposed taking the position, as a matter of public policy, that "there are ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." If you wish to defend that proposal, defend it. If you wish to withdraw it, then do that. But stop pretending that your proposal was something else.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

As ts points out, this was said to be true. But saying so, as I wrote, tends to be self-fulfilling where what is said is accepted as true whether it is or not.

This is completely unresponsive to my request. Please produce your evidence of observed racial differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures, if you think there is such evidence. There is certainly evidence of gender differences of this kind. Anthropologist Donald Brown's list of "human universals"--that is, traits exhibited by all known human cultures--include male dominance of the public/political realm, males more aggressive than females, males more prone to lethal violence than females, and males more prone to theft than females. The universal nature of these gender differences in behavior across all cultures is evidence that they have a biological basis and are not simply social constructions.

ts · 14 July 2005

No, you didn't propose "levelling the playing field," you proposed taking the position, as a matter of public policy, that "there are ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." If you wish to defend that proposal, defend it. If you wish to withdraw it, then do that. But stop pretending that your proposal was something else.

As I noted before, there's a parallel with race. Conservatives, Libertarians, and/or the right wing equates declaring a "color-blind society" with "leveling the playing field". But rather than resulting in such leveling, such declarations interfere with the ability to address disparities and inequities. And I'm not saying that Flint is a right-winger; to the contrary, I am arguing that his argument is counter-effective in terms of his own values and goals.

ts · 14 July 2005

No, you didn't propose "levelling the playing field," you proposed taking the position, as a matter of public policy, that "there are ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." If you wish to defend that proposal, defend it. If you wish to withdraw it, then do that. But stop pretending that your proposal was something else.

I don't think Flint is pretending; rather, I think that, like many people, he thinks it valid (or more accurately, doesn't think through the validity) to treat as equivalent his proposal or argument and whatever inferences *he thinks* follows from his proposal or argument. This is, of course, question begging, since the implications are subject to dispute.

Please produce your evidence of observed racial differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures, if you think there is such evidence. There is certainly evidence of gender differences of this kind.

The hugely important difference between race and gender is that race is a social construct but *not* a biological category. While there is of course a large social construct around gender, gender is *also* a very real biological category. And again, a number of feminist theorists are well aware of this and have argued that it is important to take it into account in order to obtain equitable treatment across genders, as can be seen from the works I referenced before, such as Dr. Christine Littleton's "Toward a Redefinition of Sexual Equality" and "Equality Across Difference: A Place for Rights Discourse?" (hey, I'm partial to her because I used to sleep with her -- me and my big dick, Flint).

Flint · 14 July 2005

Don P:

I already explained it to you. You said that your policy would allow us to "know that this [gender] inequality isn't because we engineered it through social convention." It would allow no such thing. You cannot eliminate socially-caused gender differences in behavior simply by declaring as a matter of public policy that there are no mental differences between men and women.

The goal is to reduce them, not eliminate them. And declaring this as a general policy goal eventually does serve to reduce them. Consider: Jefferson famously held it as a self-evident truth that all men are created equal. Was he daft? Clearly, people are all different. The Constitution that followed this declaration was ratified by eligible voters - white, adult, male land-holders only, about 8% of the populatiion. Jefferson himself held slaves. What do you suppose he had in mind?

The policy proposal you made and that I am critiquing is not giving people opportunities that they were previously denied, but "declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." That is the proposal you made, and that is the proposal that I am saying would be useless for your claimed purpose, and bad policy for the other reasons I explained.

We're going in circles. Perhaps I should have said "general statement of preference used to inform a variety of specific policies." In legal terms, policies that are not gender neutral might bear the burden of showing cause why this should be. Sometimes there IS cause. Jefferson's general statement was intended in exactly this way - as a guideline intended to avoid institutionalization of class differences.

If you wish to withdraw it, then do that. But stop pretending that your proposal was something else.

I guess I'll withdraw it in favor of wording whose meaning we can agree on. The policy position that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes was intended not as specific legislation, but as a guiding principle which could influence bits and pieces of legislation, regulation, legal interpretations, funding allocation decisions, and the like. I had intended to model my statement after what I would describe public racial policy, as holding as a general principle that mental capabilities do not vary among races. This is in no way a law, but rather intended to get people thinking along these lines. Think of this public policy as a sermon from the bully pulpit of the Presidency, in the hopes of gradually, eventually reducing the thickness of the glass ceiling. And that IS what I intended. I did not intend a policy position to be legislation, but rather a framework and context within which specific policies are evaluated. My hope is that by declaring the mental equality of the sexes as "held to be self-evident" (in Jefferson's words) would result in the gradual leveling of the playing field. This is a fairly common political technique: to set the table of discussion. Here's perhaps an illustrative example: the public policy that "poverty is bad." Now, who could possibly disagree with this? What earthly purpose is served by stating it? But wait and watch for a while, with "poverty as bad" as an underlying priority, and we see specific changes to combat poverty: a more progressive tax structure, for example. Better safety-net programs. Affirmative action programs. Educational grant, scholarship and fellowship programs. The list of anti-poverty steps, each of them perhaps small (I listed only the major ones, but there have been literally thousands of minor ones), in total adds up to quite a bit. What happened was, poverty was emphasized, focused on, made a player in the minds of policy and law and regulation makers. And do we still have poverty? Yes, of course we do. Has the standard of living of the bottom 20% changed? Yes, it has improved by most measures by a factor of about three. Was it worth it? Depends on how you think community (in this case, national) resources are best expended. I apologize for any misunderstanding. My education lies in public policy, which leads me to assume my statements will be interpreted as I would interpret them.

Flint · 14 July 2005

ts:

The hugely important difference between race and gender is that race is a social construct but *not* a biological category. While there is of course a large social construct around gender, gender is *also* a very real biological category.

I *think* I have made the effort to recognize this repeatedly. And also to point out that for at least a century, racial differences were considered to be biological (and some are: skin color is not a social construct. If the skin is so different, why is the brain immune? That was the thinking presented.) The issue I interpret as being debated here is, just exactly how are gender differences reflected in differential brain function? Some differences surely exist, but are they important? All else being equal (socially), would both the percentage and the capabilities of men and women scientists, mathematicians, composers, military generals, be roughly equal? I argue that socialized differences are influential enough so that we can't answer that question, we can only speculate. Summers and his audience clearly diverged a huge amount in their speculations. My own speculation is that gender differences in the brain are fairly minor to insignificant in most respects. Which respects are the exceptions, even if I'm right? I don't know. I think trying to engineer a social change fomenting sexual equality would be a win-win situation. I may be wrong.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

I agree with most of what you say above. But I think you still don't appreciate the importance of a scrupulous committment to honesty and integrity. The government simply should not make claims of scientific fact that it does not know to be true, that may very well be false, and that are potentially very harmful, regardless of the nobility of its motives. It's harmful not only in the direct sense that misinformation leads to bad policies, but in the erosion of public trust that inevitably follows the revelation that the government has been lying.

It is simply not necessary for the government to make the controversial, and probably false, factual assertion that there are no biological differences in mental traits between the sexes in order to justify a policy of gender neutrality--or, for that matter, gender-based affirmative action--with respect to education, training, employment, etc. If you have a public policy background you ought to know all this already.

Don P · 14 July 2005

I don't agree that "race is a social construct." Or, at least, it's a lot more complicated than that. There is a sense in which race is socially constructed, but the concept is also clearly linked to what are undeniably biological characteristics. The same applies to sex.

ts · 14 July 2005

Jefferson famously held it as a self-evident truth that all men are created equal. Was he daft?

The quote is "that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights". Nothing there about *biological* equivalence. Nothing there that's relevant to this discussion. The theists would tell us that this means that all men are created in the image of God.

And declaring this as a general policy goal eventually does serve to reduce them.

Sez who? Simply reasserting your disputed position doesn't do anything to reinforce it.

public racial policy, as holding as a general principle that mental capabilities do not vary among races

I'm not aware of any such public policy. Did the government prevent "The Bell Curve" from being published, or issue a public statement denouncing it?

"poverty is bad."

You seem to have trouble distinguishing between normative and empirical claims.

I *think* I have made the effort to recognize this repeatedly.

Regardless of what you have, or think you have, or claim you have, tried to recognize, your parallel argument between race and gender concerning "differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures" FAILS to recognize it, a point that Don made repeatedly and, as he has noted, you have been unresponsive to.

And also to point out that for at least a century, racial differences were considered to be biological

But this is IRRELEVANT given the difference between race and gender that you say you have tried to recognize. Your pointing this out serves what purpose? It is to try to push the argument that you, in your ad hominem fashion, said I knew wasn't your argument -- that if it was false for race, then it's false for gender. But I know that it *is* your argument, even if you don't know it.

(and some are: skin color is not a social construct. If the skin is so different, why is the brain immune? That was the thinking presented.)

Uh, because there's no correlation between alleles for skin color and the alleles for brain function? We don't have WN chromosomes the way we have XY chromosomes. These parallels between race and gender don't work because, again, gender is a biological category but race isn't. Skin color is a highly variable *trait*, which does not equate to a social construct such as race. Ever hear of the "one-drop rule"? http://www.afn.org/~dks/race/wright.html

Until recently, people like Daniel were identified simply as black because of a peculiarly American institution known informally as "the one-drop rule," which defines as black a person with as little as a single drop of "black blood." This notion derives from a long discredited belief that each race had its own blood type, which was correlated with physical appearance and social behavior. The antebellum South promoted the rule as a way of enlarging the slave population with the children of slave holders. By the nineteen-twenties, in Jim Crow America the one- drop rule was well established as the law of the land. It still is, according to a United States Supreme Court decision as late as 1986, which refused to review a lower court's ruling that a Louisiana woman whose great-great-great-great-grandmother had been the mistress of a French planter was black--even though that proportion of her ancestry amounted to no more than three thirty- seconds of her genetic heritage. "We are the only country in the world that applies the one-drop rule, and the only group that the one-drop rule applies to is people of African descent," Daniel observes.

Don P · 14 July 2005

Flint:

By the way, it was "most of what you say" in your post of 10:04pm that I was agreeing with. Not your post of 10:14pm, most of which I think is wrong.

ts · 14 July 2005

I don't agree that "race is a social construct." Or, at least, it's a lot more complicated than that. There is a sense in which race is socially constructed, but the concept is also clearly linked to what are undeniably biological characteristics.

But why do we treat *those* characteristics specially, when they have little or no functional relevance, when we don't treat eye color, detached ears, hairiness, and so on in the same way? Why are the characteristics that Americans treat as extremely significant virtually ignored in many other societies? The social construct is of course based on *some* identifiers, but the identifiers in and of themselves have no biological significance.

The same applies to sex.

You yourself noted some of the *universal* *functional* differences between genders. Gender differences are extensive and persistent because of the fundamental XY vs. XX distinction that links these differences. Nothing of that sort at all applies to race, and biological racial differences fade over time, whereas biological gender differences will never fade.

Don P · 14 July 2005

ts:

But why do we treat *those* characteristics specially, when they have little or no functional relevance, when we don't treat eye color, detached ears, hairiness, and so on in the same way? Why are the characteristics that Americans treat as extremely significant virtually ignored in many other societies? The social construct is of course based on *some* identifiers, but the identifiers in and of themselves have no biological significance.

We treat racial characteristics specially mainly because they have been, and to some degree still are, the basis of differential social and legal treatment. The fact that racial characteristics have no functional significance doesn't alter the fact that they are biological characteristics. If race A is defined to consist of people with biological characteristics X, Y, and Z, that is obviously a biological classification, regardless of its scientific merits.

ts · 14 July 2005

The fact that racial characteristics have no functional significance doesn't alter the fact that they are biological characteristics.

I (of course) didn't say that racial characteristics aren't biological characteristics; I said that *race* is not a biological category.

If race A is defined to consist of people with biological characteristics X, Y, and Z, that is obviously a biological classification, regardless of its scientific merits.

You won't find modern biologists dealing in such definitions, because arbitrarily defining grouping a bunch of traits together that way has no biological relevance. By "biological category", I don't just mean "a categorization based on biological traits", as you are treating it -- something completely arbitrary and ad hoc (in biological, not social) terms -- I mean something *significant* in *biological* terms -- like gender, or species. As you seem to have taken me as meaning something that I didn't, we probably don't have a real disagreement. See, e.g., http://raceandgenomics.ssrc.org/Lewontin/

... The growing realization in the middle of the twentieth century that most species had some genetic differentiation from local population to local population led finally to the abandonment in biology of any hope that a uniform criterion of race could be constructed. Yet biologists were loathe to abandon the idea of race entirely. In an attempt to hold on to the concept while make it objective and generalizable, Th. Dobzhansky, the leading biologist in the study of the genetics of natural populations, introduced the "geographical race," which he defined as any population that differed genetically in any way from any other population of the species. But as genetics developed and it became possible to characterize the genetic differences between individuals and populations it became apparent, that every population of every species in fact differs genetically to some degree from every other population. Thus, every population is a separate "geographic race" and it was realized that nothing was added by the racial category. The consequence of this realization was the abandonment of "race" as a biological category during the last quarter of the twentieth century, an abandonment that spread into anthropology and human biology. However, that abandonment was never complete in the case of the human species. There has been a constant pressure from social and political practice and the coincidence of racial, cultural and social class divisions reinforcing the social reality of race, to maintain "race" as a human classification. If it were admitted that the category of "race" is a purely social construct, however, it would have a weakened legitimacy. Thus, there have been repeated attempts to reassert the objective biological reality of human racial categories despite the evidence to the contrary.

Mike S. · 15 July 2005

(And I'm betting that there really are biological mental differences between men and women in science and math, but the differences are not "better" and "worse" or even "more competitive" and "less competitive". I think they sexes think a bit differently, and can bring different strengths to bear within all these areas.)

— Flint
Now this is closer to something we agree on. I dispute that men are not more biologically inclined towards competition than women, but you've brought up an important point about the differences not being better or worse. It might be the case that the way the academy is currently set up is more conducive to the way males do things than the way females do things, thus creating an inherent discouragement for women. But you can't address this problem unless you're willing to stipulate that men and women think (or do research, or teach, or whatever) differently, which is mostly what you've been denying. An extension of this idea is that having a career in upper management, or in elite academic institutions, is not "better" than being a stay-at-home mom (or dad). Your whole argument (and the traditional feminist argument) is basically predicated on this notion, though. Otherwise, we'd be arguing about how to get more men to be stay-at-home dads, rather than more women to become tenured professors. Of course, part of the argument does involve getting men to be more involved with childraising or other household chores, but it's obvious that there is a hierarchy, where working outside the home is "good", while working in the home is "drudgery". And I'm glad to hear about your experience with statistics, but it rather flies in the face of your using examples of specific individuals that you know to counter a statistical argument. Surely you've heard the famous quote from some Manhattan socialite saying, "But how did Nixon win? Nobody I know voted for him!"

Flint · 15 July 2005

Don P:

The government simply should not make claims of scientific fact that it does not know to be true

I entirely agree, and I was being as careful as I could be not to make any such recommendation. Statements of general policy preferences are not claims of scientific fact. I was not saying the government should DECLARE men and women to be mentally equal as a matter of fact, but rather that appropriate polices should *treat* them as equals. Again, just as Jefferson wasn't declaring all men equal scientifically, but as a philosophical framework within which everyone stands alike in the eyes of the law.

It is simply not necessary for the government to make the controversial, and probably false, factual assertion that there are no biological differences in mental traits between the sexes in order to justify a policy of gender neutrality

Yes, you are correct. The government (in this view) is NOT "justifying" a policy position with science, anymore than Jefferson was. The only "justification", as I wrote, is that "we hold this truth to be self-evident." In other words, it's not a science statement, it's a policy position statement. ts:

The quote is "that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights". Nothing there about *biological* equivalence. Nothing there that's relevant to this discussion.

Right, wrong. Right that this says nothing about biological equivalence. I am advocating that sexes be treated as equals in terms of mental abilities and capacities. And this is entirely relevant to this discussion. Perhaps we should bring up something you wrote earlier:

This is not an uncommon tactic, to characterize one's own arguments is merely a vague undisputed generality, as if none of the points at issue had ever been presented.

Here, you seem to be saying that I was stating "vague, undisputed generality" yet the broad outline I presented is in direct, distinct contrast to Summers, whose position was that mental differences between the sexes is primarily biological, and explicitly that socialized differences are not important and do NOT matter. Yet you seem to be supporting the position Summers took, with which I directly disagree. But then you say my position in disagreement is nonetheless "undisputed". And this is what the discussion is about. My generalities and those of Summers are mutually contradictory. And this is why I state my general framework. If you think Summers is right and yet belittle me for stating something "undisputed", it's hard to tell which side you are supporting.

I'm not aware of any such public policy. Did the government prevent "The Bell Curve" from being published, or issue a public statement denouncing it?

That's not how a policy position is applied. But affirmative action programs ARE part of that general policy. Are you not aware of such programs? Special dispensations granted minority-owned businesses are another example. With not too much effort, I imagine you could find "racial blindness" and (though I disapprove) racial "corrective" provisions scattered through regulations fairly liberally (pardon the expression).

You seem to have trouble distinguishing between normative and empirical claims.

On the contrary, my recommended policy position is explicitly a normative position. It is not intended to be in any way empirical. But I speculate that if my normative position were maintained for a couple of generations, Summers' empirical base would erode out from under him.

your parallel argument between race and gender concerning "differences in behavior that are large, persistent and common across most or all human cultures" FAILS to recognize it, a point that Don made repeatedly and, as he has noted, you have been unresponsive to.

I'm not sure you recognize a difference between being responsive, and agreeing with you. My argument was that these "large, persistent, and common" differences don't exist biologically, but were imposed socially - that those in positions to have influence, believing these differences were biological (IMO incorrectly), were largely responsible for the social stratification reflecting those differences. Segregation happened. Slavery happened. Scientists spent entire careers attempting to discover the underlying biological causes of the "obvious" black inferiority. Policies matter. Prejudice matters.

you, in your ad hominem fashion, said I knew wasn't your argument -- that if it was false for race, then it's false for gender. But I know that it *is* your argument, even if you don't know it.

Not what I wrote. My point, once again, was that socialized stereotypes matter, even if they are wrong! Why is that so hard for you to understand? I attempted to use the rather obviously deleterious impact false convictions about race has had, to show that false stereotypes have a great deal of harmful impact on those falsely stereotyped. Are women being falsely stereotyped with respect to math and science and upper management and a fairly long list of other nearly-all-male fields? I'm betting they are.

Uh, because there's no correlation between alleles for skin color and the alleles for brain function? We don't have WN chromosomes the way we have XY chromosomes. These parallels between race and gender don't work because, again, gender is a biological category but race isn't.

I didn't argue otherwise. You are factually correct: race is NOT a biological category. I've never said it was; quite the contrary. I have been trying to argue that race was treated as a biological category, with devastating social consequences. If the (admittedly very real) biological differences between men and women are not relevant to how well women can perform (and be satisfied) as scientists, treating those differences as relevant has the effect of discouraging qualified women from pursuing this career.

Why are the characteristics that Americans treat as extremely significant virtually ignored in many other societies? The social construct is of course based on *some* identifiers, but the identifiers in and of themselves have no biological significance.

Yes, we are in violent agreement. There are some identifiers. In American culture, these identifiers are elevated to extraordinary significance. The social impact on those so identified is severe. Yet that social impact has nothing to do with biological limitations. And so once again, I observe that where opportunities for women have appeared, women have been demonstrating that prior "obviously biological" gender "limitations" were flat wrong. Don P:

Now this is closer to something we agree on. I dispute that men are not more biologically inclined towards competition than women, but you've brought up an important point about the differences not being better or worse.

Summers was interpreted (and interpretations can vary) as telling an audience of female scientists that they were congenitally inferior at their profession. At the very least, this is undiplomatic.

But you can't address this problem unless you're willing to stipulate that men and women think (or do research, or teach, or whatever) differently, which is mostly what you've been denying.

How can I be denying this if I just said it? But why do we have to stipulate that the sexes approach science differently, to consider it a good idea to encourage more women into science?

An extension of this idea is that having a career in upper management, or in elite academic institutions, is not "better" than being a stay-at-home mom (or dad). Your whole argument (and the traditional feminist argument) is basically predicated on this notion, though. Otherwise, we'd be arguing about how to get more men to be stay-at-home dads, rather than more women to become tenured professors.

What I'm concerned about is socialized sex roles discouraging women from otherwise perfectly suitable careers. I agree such roles discourage men from becoming "housewives" as well (even our terminology is sexist!). Let me generalize: I prefer a society where everyone can follow their interests and their competence as far as possible, without artificial barriers being imposed against anyone. Socialized barriers are the worst kind because they are indirect - rather than discouraging us from trying, they discourage us from wanting to try.

And I'm glad to hear about your experience with statistics, but it rather flies in the face of your using examples of specific individuals that you know to counter a statistical argument.

Not quite. My point was that such individuals are unnecessarily rare. I'm concerned with tokenism: "She does pretty well for a woman!" And so I use an extraordinary case as an illustration, a case study, not a statistical trend.

Don P · 15 July 2005

Flint:

I entirely agree, and I was being as careful as I could be not to make any such recommendation. Statements of general policy preferences are not claims of scientific fact. I was not saying the government should DECLARE men and women to be mentally equal as a matter of fact, but rather that appropriate polices should *treat* them as equals.

That's what you now claim you meant to say. It's not what you actually said. I can only respond to what you write. I cannot read your mind. Also, you quote me as making a series of statements starting with "Now this is closer to something we agree on." I did not make those statements.

Flint · 15 July 2005

Don P:

That's what you now claim you meant to say. It's not what you actually said. I can only respond to what you write. I cannot read your mind.

Understood. I already apologized for this. I wrote "I favor declaring as a matter of public policy that there ARE NO mental differences between the sexes." My understanding of a policy here is Jefferson's understanding that "all men are created equal" - a normative statement, not a biological claim. But I can see how it might be misinterpreted. Policy statements are most emphatically NOT scientific statements

Also, you quote me as making a series of statements starting with "Now this is closer to something we agree on." I did not make those statements.

You're correct, that post was from Mike S, not from you. My bad.

ts · 16 July 2005

An extension of this idea is that having a career in upper management, or in elite academic institutions, is not "better" than being a stay-at-home mom (or dad). Your whole argument (and the traditional feminist argument) is basically predicated on this notion, though.

— Mike S.
No, the traditional feminist argument is that women should have the choice, as men do.

On the contrary, my recommended policy position is explicitly a normative position

— Flint
Regardless of your intent,It is *explicitly* an empirical statement -- "there ****ARE**** NO". "is" -- empirical; "ought" -- normative. Flint -- Humpty Dumpty.

Jefferson's understanding that "all men are created equal" - a normative statement

Jefferson's statement is most emphatically not normative; it does not state that we *should* treat people as equals, but that they *are* equals. ""We hold these truths to be self-evident". Normative statements are prescriptions, they are not truths. Semantics 101.

ts · 16 July 2005

Summers was interpreted (and interpretations can vary) as telling an audience of female scientists that they were congenitally inferior at their profession. At the very least, this is undiplomatic.

It's certainly undiplomatic to blame people for radically false and unsupportable interpretations that others make of their words. Oh, but "interpretations can vary". My, what a weasel. "When I say ARE, I mean should. When Jefferson said truth, he meant policy." What a world you live in.

ts · 16 July 2005

Yet you seem to be supporting the position Summers took

I only seem that way to someone who sees things in terms of black and white. Rather than supporting Summers' position, I have supported his right to take it. I told you that I used to sleep with a feminist theorist, a law professor and founder of the Women's Studies program at UCLA. I didn't get into her bed by supporting Summers' position.

But then you say my position in disagreement is nonetheless "undisputed".

You just can't help but beg the question, can you? You insist that, if *you* think that something you have said contradicts Summers, then it must contradict Summers, and everyone else must think so too. You are apparently not capable of conceiving that others might not be as confused as you are. What I said what that *what you actually wrote*, that "our society imposes sex roles in countless ways" and "this has influence on our perceptions and understandings" is undisputed. If you really think Summers would disagree, or that disagreement with these truisms is at the core of Summers position, then you're even more retarded than I thought. But I don't think that's the real problem; the real problem is sloppy reading, sloppy thinking, and a general lack of intellectual honesty.

My generalities and those of Summers are mutually contradictory.

False. There's nothing that Summers said, either specifically or generally, that is contradictory with the claim that "society imposes sex roles in countless ways" or that "this has influence on our perceptions and understandings". So you're lying, or stupid, or confused, or some combination of those.

And this is why I state my general framework. If you think Summers is right and yet belittle me for stating something "undisputed", it's hard to tell which side you are supporting.

I support the truth, some of which can be found in some of the things Summers says, and some of which can be found in some of the things you say. But you have this absurd black and white notion of "sides", and the blindly egocentric view that I must subscribe to all the erroneous *inferences* that you make.